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[Latest Version] Easily Pass 1z0-144 Exam With Updated 1z0-144 Preparation Materials

July 19, 2022
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Question 1:

View the exhibit and examine the structure of the products table.

Examine the following code:

Which statement is true when the procedure DELETE_DETAILS is invoked?

A. It executes successfully but no error messages get recorded in the DEBUG_OUTPUT table

B. It executes successfully and any error messages get recorded in the DEBUG_OUTPUT table.

C. It gives an error because PRAGMA AUTONOMOUS_TRANSACTION can be used only in packaged procedures.

D. It gives an error because procedures containing PRAGMA AUTONOMOUS_TRANSACTION cannot be called from the exception section.

Correct Answer: A

In this case, the debug output will only occur if there is an exception.

Question 2:

View Exhibit 1 and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

View Exhibit 2 and examine the code.

What would be the outcome when the code is executed?

A. It executes successfully.

B. It gives an error because the SAL variable is not visible in the INCREASE function.

C. It gives an error because the INCREASE function cannot be called from the RAISE_SALARY procedure.

D. It gives an error because the INCREASE function and the RAISE_SALARY procedure should be declared at the beginning of the DECLARE section before all the other declarations.

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

What is the correct definition of the persistent state of a packaged variable?

A. It is a private variable defined in a procedure or function within a package body whose value is consistent within a user session.

B. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is consistent within a user session.

C. It is a private variable in a package body whose value is consistent across all current active sessions.

D. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is always consistent across all current active sessions.

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Identify two situations where the DBMS_SQL package should be used. (Choose two.)

A. The SELECT list is not known until run time.

B. The dynamic SQL statement retrieves rows into records.

C. You do not know how many columns a SELECT statement will return, or what their data types will be.

D. You must use the % FOUND SQL cursor attribute after issuing a dynamic SQL statement that is an INSERT or UPDATE statement.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 5:

View the Exhibit and examine the code.

Why does the code give an error on execution?

A. because the WORD_LIST variable is not visible in PROCEDURE WORDING

B. because the LEXICON variable is not visible in PROCEDURE ADD_ENTRY

C. because the LEXICON variable is not initialized in PROCEDURE WORDING

D. because the WORD_LIST parameter in IN OUT mode cannot be of a RECORD data type

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the AUDIT_CUST table.

CUST_ID and CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT are existing columns in the CUSTOMER table. Examine the following trigger code:

Which statement is true about the above trigger?

A. It gives an error on compilation because it should be a statement-level trigger.

B. It compiles and fires successfully when the credit limit is updated in the customer table.

C. It gives an error on compilation because of the commit command in the trigger code.

D. It compiles successfully, but gives an error when the credit limit is updated in the CUSTOMER table because the PRAGMA AUTONOMOUS_TRANSACTION statement should be introduced in the trigger.

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Which two statements are true about the INSTEAD OF triggers? (Choose two.)

A. DELETE operations cannot be performed using the INSTEAD OF triggers.

B. The INSTEAD OF triggers must be created to add or modify data through any view.

C. The INSTEAD OF triggers can be written only for views, and the BEFORE and AFTER timing options are not valid.

D. The CHECK option for views is not enforced when insertions or updates to the view are performed by using the INSTEAD OF triggers.

Correct Answer: CD

Question 8:

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the employees table.

Examine the following block of code:

What is the outcome when the above code is executed?

A. It executes successfully.

B. It gives an error because decode cannot be used in a PL/SQL block.

C. It gives an error because the AVG function cannot be used in a PL/SQL block

D. It gives an error because the MONTHS_BETWEEN function cannot be used in a PL/SQL block.

E. It gives an error because both the AVG and decode functions cannot be used in a PL/SQL block.

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Examine the following code:

Which two statements are true about the above function? (Choose two.)

A. It can be used only in a parallelized query.

B. It can be used in both a parallelized query and a parallelized DML statement.

C. It can be used only in a parallelized data manipulation language (DML) statement.

D. It can have a separate copy run in each of the multiple processes when called from a SQL statement that is run in parallel.

E. It requires a PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES declaration with RNDS, WNDS, RNPS, and WNPS specified in order to use parallel optimization.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 10:

/temp/my_files is an existing folder in the server, facultylist.txt is an existing text file in this folder.

Examine the following commands that are executed by the DBA:

SQL>CREATE DIRECTION my_dir AS `/temp/my_files\’:

SQL>GRANT READ ON DIRECTORY my_dir To public:

View the Exhibit and examine the procedure created by user SCOTT to read the list of faculty names from the text file.

SCOTT executes the procedure as follows:

SQL>SET SERVEROUTPUT ON

SQL>EXEC read_file (`MY_DIR\’, FACULTYLIST.TXT\’)

What is the outcome?

A. It goes into an infinite loop.

B. It executes successfully and displays only the list of faculty names.

C. It does not execute and displays an error message because the end-of-file condition is not taken care of.

D. It executes successfully and displays the list of faculty names followed by a “no data found” error message.

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

User SCOTT has been granted CREATE ANY TRIGGER and ALTER ANY TABLE by the DBA. HR is an existing schema in the database.

SCOTT creates the following trigger:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER drop_trigger

BEFORE DROP ON hr.SCHEMA

BEGIN

RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR (-20000, `Cannot drop object\’);

END;

SCOTT does not grant the EXECUTE privilege on this trigger to any other users.

For which user(s) would this trigger fire by default when they drop an object in the HR schema?

A. Only HR

B. SCOTT and HR

C. Only SCOTT

D. SCOTT, HR, and SYS

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

View the Exhibit and examine the code and its outcome on execution: What would be the effect on the two procedures if the value of debug is set to FALSE? (Choose two.)

A. MY_PROC2 is not recompiled.

B. MY_PROC1 is recompiled but remains unchanged.

C. MY_PROC2 is recompiled but remains unchanged.

D. MY_PROC1 is recompiled without the debugging code.

Correct Answer: CD

Question 13:

Identify two features of obfuscation. (Choose two.)

A. The Import and Export utilities accept wrapped files.

B. SQL\’ Plus cannot process the obfuscated source files.

C. Only the wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.

D. Both the DBMS_DDL package and the Wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.

E. The source code is visible only through the DBA_SOURCE view and not through the USER_SOURCE or ALL_SOURCE View

Correct Answer: AC

Question 14:

You create the following table and execute the following code:

Which statement is true about the outcome of the above code?

A. It executes successfully and all the rows are updated.

B. It raises an exception but saves the inserted rows and the update to the first row.

C. It gives an error but saves the inserted rows; however, no rows are updated.

D. It gives an error and all the data manipulation language (DML) statements are rolled back.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

You want to create a trigger that fires whenever rows are deleted from the customer table and that displays the number of rows remaining in the table.

Which two statements are correct about the trigger to be created for the above requirement? (Choose two.)

A. It should be an after trigger.

B. It should be a before trigger.

C. It should be a row-level trigger.

D. It should be a statement-level trigger.

E. It can be a before or an after trigger.

Correct Answer: AD

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New Updated 1Z0-083 Exam Dumps Free Download

July 18, 2022
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How to pass 1Z0-083 exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid 1Z0-083 new questions to boost your success rate in Oracle Database 1Z0-083 Oracle Database Administration II exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We 1Z0-083 vce, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our Oracle Database materials.

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Question 1:

Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

A. All metrics are instance related.

B. Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.

C. A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved.

D. They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.

E. Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.

F. STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.

Correct Answer: CEF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e41573/autostat.htm#PFGRF027 https://blogs.oracle.com/oem/how-to-clear-an-alert-v2

Question 2:

For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)

A. to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB.

B. to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB

C. to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB

D. to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB

E. to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB

F. to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed

Correct Answer: EF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/12.2/admin/creating-andremoving-pdbs-with-sql-plus.html#GUID-1C47D543-8376-48AE-A1AE-632316731D59

Question 3:

Which three actions are performed by the Oracle Preinstallation RPM, oracle-database-server-xxxxpreinstall, for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, where xxxx is the Oracle version and release? (Choose three.)

A. performing checks to ensure minimum configuration requirements for Oracle Grid Infrastructure are met

B. creating the oracle OS user

C. creating the OSDBA (dba) group

D. creating thte oraInventory (oinstall) group

E. creating the grid OS user

F. configuring the OS for Oracle Automatic Storage Management shared storage access

Correct Answer: CDF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/install.112/e41961/prelinux.htm#CWLIN2932

Question 4:

Which two are true about common objects? (Choose two.)

A. They can be created only in CDB$ROOT.

B. They can be only metadata-linked in an application container.

C. They can exist in user-defined schemas only in application containers.

D. They can exist in CDB$ROOT and an application root.

E. They can be extended data-linked in CDB$ROOT.

F. They can be created only in an application root.

Correct Answer: EF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://blog.toadworld.com/2017/08/01/oracle-multi-tenant-application-containers-part-iiisharing-of-data-in-application-common-objects

Question 5:

Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diasnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)

A. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.

B. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.

C. A DBA can run it manually.

D. Results are written to the alert log.

E. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last day of activity.

Correct Answer: BD

Section: (none)

Question 6:

You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.

The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.

The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.

Examine this list of actions:

1.

Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.

2.

Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.

3.

Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data fies to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.

4.

Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.

5.

Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.

6.

Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination system.

7.

Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.

8.

Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.

Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?

A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8

B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8

C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Question 7:

A container database called CDB1 is OMF-enabled. PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT is not configured in CDB1. PDB1 was unplugged from CDB1 earlier in the week. Examine this command, which will be executed in CDB1: CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1

USING `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml\’ SOURCE_FILE_NAME_CONVERT = (`/u01/app/oracle/oradata/\’, `/u02/app/oracle/oradata/\’);

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. PDB1 data files already exist in the correct location.

B. DBMS_PDB.CHECK_PLUG_COMPATIBILITY must be run in CDB1 before executing the command.

C. PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT must be set before executing the command.

D. /u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml does not contain the current locations of data files for PDB1.

E. PDB1 must be dropped from CDB1.

Correct Answer: CD

Section: (none)

Reference: http://anjaniappsdba.blogspot.com/2016/09/oracle-database-12102c-hot-cloning-of.html

Question 8:

Which three are true about transporting databases across platforms using Recovery Manager (RMAN) image copies? (Choose three.)

A. By default, the transported database will use Oracle Managed Files (OMF)

B. Data files can be converted on the destination system.

C. Data files can be converted on the source system.

D. A new DBID is automatically created for the transported database.

E. Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats.

F. The password file is automatically converted by RMAN.

Correct Answer: CEF

Section: (none)

Password file is automatically converted by RMAN.

Question 9:

Which two are true about changing the LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED property to false in a CDB? (Choose two.)

A. After the change, only a common user with the required privilege can create an undo tablespace in CDBandROOT.

B. Any new PDB and existing PDBs are automatically configured to use the default undo tablespace in CDB$ROOT.

C. After the change, only one undo tablespace can exist in CDB$ROOT.

D. After the change, any user with the required privilege can create an undo tablespace in the PDBs.

E. Undo tablespaces existing in PDBs must be dropped before the change.

F. After the change, each existing PDB has to be reopened for the new undo mode to take effect.

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/18/multi/creating-and-configuring-a-cdb.html#GUID-12ADA04D-F81D-4579-A68C-0958CC7D6C2F

Question 10:

Which two are true about SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)? (Choose two.)

A. It is integrated with the SQL Access Advisor.

B. It predicts the impact of system changes on SQL workload response time.

C. It provides before and after execution statistics for each SQL statement in the analysis task

D. It offers fine-grained analysis of all the SQL statements in the analysis task as a group.

E. SQL statements that were originally run concurrently are run concurrently by SPA.

Correct Answer: BD

Section: (none)

Reference: https://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/manageability/spa-ow09-131455.pdf (4)

Question 11:

Which two are true about gathering optimizer statistics? (Choose two.)

A. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open PDBs except PDB$SEED.

B. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to a PDB opened in read/ write mode gathers object statistics for that PDB.

C. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT.

D. System statistics can be gathered only while connected to CDB$ROOT.

E. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open pluggable databases (PDBs)

Correct Answer: CE

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/20/arpls/DBMS_STATS.html

Question 12:

Which two are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets? (Choose two.)

A. A duplexed backup set uses the same number of SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.

B. A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.

C. A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.

D. A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.

E. A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.

F. A duplexed backup set always uses twice as many SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.

Correct Answer: DF

Section: (none)

Question 13:

Which three are true about RMAN persistent configuration settings, administration, and their effects? (Choose three.)

A. A target database\’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target\’s control file

B. Backup older than the recovery window retention policy are always deleted automatically if the backup location has insufficient space.

C. Backups written to the fast recovery area (FRA) that are oboslete based on the redundancy retention policy can be deleted automatically to free space.

D. The RMAN SHOW ALL command displays only settings with nondefault values.

E. A target database\’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always synchronized automatically with the RMAN catalog.

F. The V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modified.

G. A DBA must specify either a redundancy retention policy or a recovery window retention policy.

Correct Answer: ABF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books? id=pUEkAAAAQBAJandpg=PA114andlpg=PA114anddq=V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modifiedandsource=blandots=fhC9A7ULeXandsig=ACfU3U2cGhTjmAOpCZhvlL5R4j6ixLRAwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjJzfWmtnoAhXT8eAKHQ9uBG8Q6AEwAHoECAwQJg#v=onepageandq=V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION% 20view% 20displays only settings with values that have been% 20modifiedandf=false

Question 14:

Which three are true about Optimizer Statistics Advisor? (Choose three.)

A. It can be run only manually.

B. It is part of the DBMS_ADVISOR package.

C. It can recommend changes to improve the statistics gathering process.

D. It always analyzes all schemas in the database.

E. It runs automatically every night by default.

F. It is part of the DBMS_STATS package.

Correct Answer: CDF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/optimizer-statistics-advisor-12cr2

Question 15:

You issued this command:

RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY FILES;

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. All Oracle recovery files not in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

B. All non-Oracle files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

C. All Oracle recovery files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

D. All Oracle recovery files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) are backed up.

E. These backups can be written to disk or SBT.

Correct Answer: BE

Section: (none)

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[Newest Version] Free 1Z0-071 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

June 26, 2022
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 |  Oracle Database

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Question 1:

Which four statements are true regarding primary and foreign key constraints and the effect they can have on table data?

A. Only the primary key can be defined at the column and table level.

B. The foreign key columns and parent table primary key columns must have the same names.

C. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to remain in the child table at the time the parent row is deleted.

D. A table can have only one primary key but multiple foreign keys.

E. Primary key and foreign key constraints can be defined at both the column and table level.

F. A table can have only one primary key and one foreign key.

G. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to be deleted automatically from the child table at the time the parent row is deleted

Correct Answer: CDEG

Question 2:

Which three statements are true about performing Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations on a view In an Oracle Database?

A. Insert statements can always be done on a table through a view.

B. The WITH CHECK clause has no effect when deleting rows from the underlying table through the view.

C. Views cannot be used to query rows from an underlying table if the table has a PRIPOARY KEY and the PRIMARY KEY columns are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

D. Views cannot be used to add or modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains the DISTINCT keyword.

E. Views cannot be used to add on modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains aggregating functions.

F. Views cannot be used to add rows to an underlying table if the table has columns with NOT NULL constraints lacking default values Which are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

Correct Answer: DEF

Question 3:

Which four statements are true about constraints on Oracle tables?

A. A Column can have only one CHECK Constraint.

B. A NOT NULL Constraint can be defined at the table level.

C. A UNIQUE constraint permits NULLS.

D. A PRIMARY KEY Constraint can be added after a table has been created and populated.

E. A CHECK Constraint can refer to values in other rows.

F. A UNIQUE Constraint can use a pre-existing index on the constrained column or columns.

G. A FOREIGN KEY Column can contain NULLS.

Correct Answer: CDFG

Question 4:

Which three are true about multiple INSERT statements?

A. They can be performed only by using a subquery.

B. They can be performed on relational tables.

C. They can be performed on views.

D. They can be performed on remote tables.

E. They can be performed on external tables using SQL*Loader.

F. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.

Correct Answer: ABD

Question 5:

Which three statements are true about GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLES?

A. GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE rows inserted by a session are available to any other session whose user has been granted select on the table.

B. A TRUNCATE command issued in a session causes all rows In a GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE for the issuing session to be deleted.

C. A DELETE command on a GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE cannot be rolled back.

D. A GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE\’s definition is available to multiple sessions.

E. Any GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE rows existing at session termination will be deleted.

F. GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE space allocation occurs at session start.

Correct Answer: BDF

Question 6:

Which two statements are true about CURRENT_TIMEITAMP?

A. The date is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

B. The value varies depending on the setting of SESSIONTIMEZONE.

C. It returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE.

D. The time is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

E. It returns a value of data type TIMESTAMP

F. It always returns the same value as SYSTIMESTAMP

Correct Answer: DF

Question 7:

Examine the description of the PRODUCTS table Which contains data:

Which two are true?

A. The PROD ID column can be renamed.

B. The PROD_ ID column data type can be changed to VARCHAR2 (2).

C. The EXPIRY DATE column data type can be changed to TIME STAMP.

D. The EXPIRY DATE column cannot be dropped.

E. The PROD NAME column cannot have a DEFAULT clause added to it.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 8:

Which two are true about the WITH GRANT OPTION clause?

A. The grantee can grant the object privilege to any user in the database, with of without including this option.

B. The grantee must have the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE system privilege to use this option.

C. It can be used when granting privileges to roles.

D. It can be used for system and object privileges.

E. It cannot be used to pass on privileges to PUBLIC by the grantee.

F. It can be used to pass on privileges to other users by the grantee.

Correct Answer: AF

Question 9:

Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.

B. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.

C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.

D. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.

E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.

F. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns support yearly intervals.

Correct Answer: EF

Question 10:

Which three statements are true about a self join?

A. It must be an inner join.

B. It can be an outer join.

C. The ON clause must be used.

D. It must be an equation.

E. The query must use two different aliases for the table.

F. The ON clause can be used.

Correct Answer: BEF

Question 11:

Which two statements are true about Oracle synonyms?

A. A synonym can have a synonym.

B. A synonym has an object number.

C. Any user can create a public synonym.

D. All private synonym names must be unique in the database.

E. A synonym can be created on an object in a package.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 12:

The CUSTOMERS table has a CUST_CREDT_LIMIT column of data type number.

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’)) FROM customers;

B. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

C. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

D. SLECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’Not available\’) from customers;

E. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit,TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’NOT Available\’) FROM customers;

Correct Answer: DE

Question 13:

In Which three situations does a new transaction always start?

A. When issuing a SELECT FOR UPDATE statement after a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement was issued in the same session

B. When issuing a CREATE INDEX statement after a CREATE TABLE statement completed unsuccessfully in the same session

C. When issuing a TRUNCATE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

D. When issuing a CREATE TABLE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

E. When issuing the first Data Manipulation Language (OML) statement after a COMMIT or ROLLBACK statement was issued in the same session

F. When issuing a DML statement after a DML statement filed in the same session.

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 14:

You issued this command: DROP TABLE hr. employees; Which three statements are true?

A. ALL constraints defined on HR, EMPLOYEES are dropped.

B. The HR. EMPLOYEES table may be moved to the recycle bin.

C. Synonyms for HR EMPLOYEES are dropped.

D. Sequences used to populate columns in the HR. EMPLOYEES table are dropped.

E. All indexes defined on HR, EMPLOYEES are dropped.

F. Views referencing HR, EMPLOYEES are dropped.

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 15:

Examine this business rule:

Each student can work on multiple projects and earth project can have multiple students.

You must decide an Entity Relationship (ER) model for optional data storage and allow generating reports

in this format:

STUDENT_ID FIRST_NAME LAST_NAME PROJECT_ID PROJECT_NAME PROJECT_TASK Which two statements are true?

A. An associative table must be created with a composite key of STUDENT_ID and PROJECT_ID, Which is the foreign key linked to the STUDENTS and PROJECTS entities.

B. The ER must have a many-to-many relationship between the STUDENTS and PROJECTS entities that must be resolved into 1-to-many relationships.

C. PROJECT_ID must be the primary key in the PROJECTS entity and foreign key in the STUDENTS entity.

D. The ER must have a 1-to-many relationship between the STUDENTS and PROJECTS entities.

E. STUDENT_ID must be the primary key in the STUDENTS entity and foreign key in the PROJECTS entity.

Correct Answer: AB

… Read More →

New Released Free Update of 1Z0-052 Exam Practice Materials

April 5, 2022
 |  No Comments
 |  Oracle Database

How to pass Newest 1Z0-052 pdf exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid 1Z0-052 actual tests to boost your success rate in Oracle Database Apr 05,2022 Newest 1Z0-052 vce Oracle Database 11g: Administration Workshop I exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We 1Z0-052 dumps, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our Oracle Database materials.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1Z0-052 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 1Z0-052 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1Z0-052 dumps.If you need to check sample questions of the 1Z0-052 free dumps, go through the Q and As from 1Z0-052 dumps below.

Question 1:

Which four are true about the tools used to administer Oracle databases? (Choose four.)

A. SQL *Plus can be used to create databases

B. DBCA can be used to upgrade databases

C. RMAN can be used to start up Oracle instances

D. SQL *Plus can be used to start up Oracle instances

E. SRVCTL can be used to shut down Oracle instances

F. Data Pump can be used to load data from text files

Correct Answer: ABCD

Question 2:

Which three are true about UNDO data? (Choose three.)

A. It is used during online backups to guarantee their consistency

B. It is used to roll back failed transactions

C. It is used to recover dropped tables by using FLASHBACK TABLE … TO BEFORE DROP

D. It is used to rewind a database by using FLASHBACK DATABASE

E. It is used to provide read consistency

F. It is used to enable ROLLBACK statements to roll back uncommitted updates

Correct Answer: DEF

Question 3:

Which three are true about dynamic performance views? (Choose three.)

A. Read consistency is not guaranteed for these views

B. Some of them display data that is useful for SQL statement tuning

C. They display selected data from data dictionary base tables

D. They can be queried only by SYS even when the database is open

E. They contain information that is not available in data dictionary views

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 4:

Which two are true about external tables? (Choose two.)

A. They can be stored in Oracle Automatic Storage Management File System (Oracle ACFS)

B. They can always be updated using SQL

C. They have extents

D. They support the ORACLE_DATAPUMP access driver.

E. They support all DML operations.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 5:

Which two can be exported by a non-administrative account by using Data Pump? (Choose two.)

A. database

B. tables

C. tablespaces

D. directory objects

E. schemas

Correct Answer: BE

Question 6:

Where is backup metadata stored for use by Recovery Manager (RMAN)?

A. in the SYSTEM tablespace

B. in the control file

C. in the SPFILE

D. in the SYSAUX tablespace

E. in the diagnostic destination files

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

A database instance was terminated due to a lost data file and has not been restarted. You wish to restore database availability by using the Data Recovery Advisor. Examine this list of RMAN commands:

What are the minimum required commands and in what order must they be executed to achieve this?

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

B. 1 and 4

C. 1, 2, 3, and 4

D. 1, 3, and 4

E. 1, 3, 4, and 5

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

Which two types of information can be found in the alert log? (Choose two.)

A. instance recovery details

B. values of all initialization parameters whenever an instance is restarted

C. a record of all DDL statements performed by non-DBA users

D. critical errors encountered by background processes

E. a record of all actions performed by SYS and SYSTEM

Correct Answer: DE

Question 9:

Which two are true about roles? (Choose two.)

A. A secure application role can be set only by its associated PL/SQL package.

B. A role can be granted a combination of system and object privileges and other roles.

C. Roles are owned by SYSTEM.

D. The CONNECT role is granted automatically to a user when it is created.

E. The RESOURCE role is granted the CREATE SESSION privilege.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 10:

Table EMP resides in the USERS tablespace.

Examine this command:

SQL> DROP TABLE emp PURGE;

Which two methods would you use to recover EMP? (Choose two.)

A. Flashback Transaction Backout

B. re-creating the table and reinserting the rows

C. Flashback Drop

D. Flashback Table

E. performing a tablespace point in time recovery of USERS

Correct Answer: BE

Question 11:

In a database, EXAMPLE is the default tablespace and DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION is FALSE.

Examine these commands executed by SYS:

What will be the outcome and why?

A. U1.TAB1 will be created B. It will fail because U1 has no quota on EXAMPLE

C. It will fail because U1 has no default tablespace

D. It will fail because U1 does not have the CREATE TABLE privilege

E. It will fail because U1 does not have the CREATE SESSION privilege

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)

A. Stateful alerts are preserved across instance restarts.

B. They are automatically written to alert.log.

C. By default, an email is sent by the database instance for each server-generated alert.

D. Stateless alerts can be found in DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS.

E. By default, a server-generated alert is raised for each tablespace that has 85 % or more of its space used.

Correct Answer: BE

Question 13:

Which statement is true regarding undo tablespace?

A. Undo tablespace is a temporary tablespace.

B. Only one undo tablespace can exist in a database.

C. Undo tablespace can consist of only one data file that is reused in a cyclic fashion.

D. Multiple undo tablespace can exist in a database but only one can be active at a time.

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

You are installing Oracle Grid Infrastructure by using the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI). You select the “Install and Configure Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server\’ option. Which task is performed by OUI as part of this installation?

A. creation of privileged operating system group that are used for OS authentication.

B. creation of an ASM disk group and registration of ASM components with Oracle Restart

C. creation of a general purpose database

D. creation and configuration of Enterprise Managed Cloud Control on the server

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which two affect the time taken for instance recovery? (Choose two.)

A. size of archivelogs

B. size of existing RMAN backupsets

C. UNDO_RETENTION value

D. size of UNDO tablespace

E. FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET value

F. size of redo logs

Correct Answer: EF

… Read More →

[Newest Version] Easily Pass 1Z0-809 Exam with Geekcert Updated Real Oracle 1Z0-809 Exam Materials

January 19, 2022
 |  No Comments
 |  Oracle Database

Geekcert provides the most up to date and accurate preparing materials of the Oracle Database Jan 14,2022 Newest 1Z0-809 free download certification exam Q and A , testing software, exam PDF and VCE files to help you prepare your Oracle Database Latest 1Z0-809 vce dumps Java SE 8 Programmer II exam. What training you are looking for? Come to visit our site and choose Geekcert online certification materials, you will get a quick and cost-efficient way to become a Oracle Oracle Database certified professional in IT industry.

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We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1Z0-809 preparation materials from Oracle Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/1z0-809.html

The following are the 1Z0-809 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1Z0-809 dumps.Free sample questions of 1Z0-809 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real 1Z0-809 dumps.

Question 1:

Given:

IntStream stream = IntStream.of (1,2,3);

IntFunction inFu= x -> y -> x*y; //line n1

IntStream newStream = stream.map(inFu.apply(10)); //line n2

newStream.forEach(System.output::print);

Which modification enables the code fragment to compile?

A. Replace line n1 with: IntFunction inFu = x -> y -> x*y;

B. Replace line n1 with: IntFunction inFu = x -> y -> x*y;

C. Replace line n1 with: BiFunction inFu = x -> y -> x*y;

D. Replace line n2 with: IntStream newStream = stream.map(inFu.applyAsInt (10));

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Given the code fragment:

List values = Arrays.asList (1, 2, 3);

values.stream ()

.map(n -> n*2) //line n1

.peek(System.out::print) //line n2

.count();

What is the result?

A. 246

B. The code produces no output.

C. A compilation error occurs at line n1.

D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Given the code fragment:

public class Foo {

public static void main (String [ ] args) {

Map unsortMap = new HashMap ( );

unsortMap.put (10, “z”);

unsortMap.put (5, “b”);

unsortMap.put (1, “d”);

unsortMap.put (7, “e”);

unsortMap.put (50, “j”);

Map treeMap = new TreeMap (new

Comparator ( ) {

@Override public int compare (Integer o1, Integer o2) {return o2.compareTo

(o1); } } );

treeMap.putAll (unsortMap);

for (Map.Entry entry : treeMap.entrySet () ) {

System.out.print (entry.getValue () ” “);

}

}

}

What is the result?

A. A compilation error occurs.

B. d b e z j

C. j z e b d

D. z b d e j

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which two reasons should you use interfaces instead of abstract classes? (Choose two.)

A. You expect that classes that implement your interfaces have many common methods or fields, or require access modifiers other than public.

B. You expect that unrelated classes would implement your interfaces.

C. You want to share code among several closely related classes.

D. You want to declare non-static on non-final fields.

E. You want to take advantage of multiple inheritance of type.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://books.google.com.br/books?id=nS2tBQAAQBAJandpg=PT235andlpg=PT235anddq=You want to share code among several closely related classes.andsource=blandots=3oYOu2XXNandsig=uVFS0KB15BqyEgghXnnjJSUdcrEandhl=pt-BRandsa=Xandved=0ahUKEwjlsKen6baAhVEhZAKHeiEDTgQ6AEIMDAB#v=onepageandq=You want to share code among several closely related% 20classes.andf=false

Question 5:

Given:

public class Counter {

public static void main (String[ ] args) {

int a = 10;

int b = -1;

assert (b >=1) : “Invalid Denominator”;

int = a / b;

System.out.println (c);

}

}

What is the result of running the code with the -ea option?

A. -10

B. 0

C. An AssertionError is thrown.

D. A compilation error occurs.

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Given:

class Bird {

public void fly () { System.out.print(“Can fly”); }

}

class Penguin extends Bird {

public void fly () { System.out.print(“Cannot fly”); }

}

and the code fragment:

class Birdie {

public static void main (String [ ] args) {

fly( ( ) -> new Bird ( ));

fly (Penguin : : new);

}

/* line n1 */

}

Which code fragment, when inserted at line n1, enables the Birdie class to compile?

A. static void fly (Consumer bird) { bird :: fly (); } {

B. static void fly (Consumer bird) bird.accept( ) fly (); } {

C. static void fly (Supplier bird) bird.get( ) fly (); } {

D. static void fly (Supplier bird) LOST

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Given:

1.

abstract class Shape {

2.

Shape ( ) { System.out.println (“Shape”); }

3.

protected void area ( ) { System.out.println (“Shape”); }

4.

}

5.

6.

class Square extends Shape {

7.

int side;

8.

Square int side {

9.

/* insert code here */

10.

this.side = side;

11.

}

12.

public void area ( ) { System.out.println (“Square”); }

13.

}

14.

class Rectangle extends Square {

15.

int len, br;

16.

Rectangle (int x, int y) {

17.

/* insert code here */

18.

len = x, br = y;

19.

}

20.

void area ( ) { System.out.println (“Rectangle”); }

21.

}

Which two modifications enable the code to compile? (Choose two.)

A. At line 1, remove abstract

B. At line 9, insert super ( );

C. At line 12, remove public

D. At line 17, insert super (x);

E. At line 17, insert super (); super.side = x;

F. At line 20, use public void area ( ) {

Correct Answer: DF

Question 8:

Given:

class Sum extends RecursiveAction { //line n1

static final int THRESHOLD_SIZE = 3;

int stIndex, lstIndex;

int [ ] data;

public Sum (int [ ]data, int start, int end) {

this.data = data;

this stIndex = start;

this. lstIndex = end;

}

protected void compute ( ) {

int sum = 0;

if (lstIndex ?stIndex<;= THRESHOLD_SIZE) {

for (int i = stIndex; i < lstIndex; i ) {

sum = data [i];

}

System.out.println(sum);

} else {

new Sum (data, stIndex THRESHOLD_SIZE, lstIndex).fork( );

new Sum (data, stIndex,

Math.min (lstIndex, stIndex THRESHOLD_SIZE)

).compute ();

}

}

}

and the code fragment:

ForkJoinPool fjPool = new ForkJoinPool ( );

int data [ ] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

fjPool.invoke (new Sum (data, 0, data.length));

and given that the sum of all integers from 1 to 10 is 55.

Which statement is true?

A. The program prints several values that total 55.

B. The program prints 55.

C. A compilation error occurs at line n1.

D. The program prints several values whose sum exceeds 55.

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Given the content of Operator.java, EngineOperator.java, and Engine.java files: and the code fragment:

What is the result?

A. The Engine.java file fails to compile.

B. The EngineOperator.java file fails to compile.

C. The Operator.java file fails to compile.

D. ON OFF

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Given the code fragment:

Stream<List> iStr= Stream.of (

Arrays.asList (“1”, “John”),

Arrays.asList (“2”, null)0;

Stream< nInSt = iStr.flatMapToInt ((x) -> x.stream ());

nInSt.forEach (System.out :: print);

What is the result?

A. 1John2null

B. 12

C. A NullPointerException is thrown at run time.

D. A compilation error occurs.

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

Given the code fragment:

Path file = Paths.get (“courses.txt”); // line n1

Assume the courses.txt is accessible.

Which code fragment can be inserted at line n1 to enable the code to print the content of the courses.txt file?

A. List fc = Files.list(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

B. Stream fc = Files.readAllLines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

C. List fc = readAllLines(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

D. Stream fc = Files.lines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Given the code fragment:

public void recDelete (String dirName) throws IOException {

File [ ] listOfFiles = new File (dirName) .listFiles();

if (listOfFiles ! = null andand listOfFiles.length >0) {

for (File aFile : listOfFiles) {

if (aFile.isDirectory ()) {

recDelete (aFile.getAbsolutePath ());

} else {

if (aFile.getName ().endsWith (“.class”))

aFile.delete ();

}

}

}

}

Assume that Projects contains subdirectories that contain .class files and is passed as an argument to the

recDelete () method when it is invoked.

What is the result?

A. The method deletes all the .class files in the Projects directory and its subdirectories.

B. The method deletes the .class files of the Projects directory only.

C. The method executes and does not make any changes to the Projects directory.

D. The method throws an IOException.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

Given the code fragments:

4.

void doStuff() throws ArithmeticException, NumberFormatException, Exception {

5.

if (Math.random() >-1 throw new Exception (“Try again”);

6.

}

and

24.

try {

25.

doStuff ( ):

26.

} catch (ArithmeticException | NumberFormatException | Exception e) {

27.

System.out.println (e.getMessage()); }

28.

catch (Exception e) {

29.

System.out.println (e.getMessage()); }

30.

}

Which modification enables the code to print Try again?

A. Comment the lines 28, 29 and 30.

B. Replace line 26 with: } catch (Exception | ArithmeticException | NumberFormatException e) {

C. Replace line 26 with: } catch (ArithmeticException | NumberFormatException e) {

D. Replace line 27 with: throw e;

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Given the definition of the Country class:

public class country {

public enum Continent {ASIA, EUROPE}

String name;

Continent region;

public Country (String na, Continent reg) {

name = na, region = reg;

}

public String getName () {return name;}

public Continent getRegion () {return region;}

}

and the code fragment:

List couList = Arrays.asList (

new Country (“Japan”, Country.Continent.ASIA),

new Country (“Italy”, Country.Continent.EUROPE),

new Country (“Germany”, Country.Continent.EUROPE));

Map<Country.Continent, List> regionNames = couList.stream ()

.collect(Collectors.groupingBy (Country ::getRegion,

Collectors.mapping(Country::getName, Collectors.toList()))));

System.out.println(regionNames);

A. {EUROPE = [Italy, Germany], ASIA = [Japan]}

B. {ASIA = [Japan], EUROPE = [Italy, Germany]}

C. {EUROPE = [Germany, Italy], ASIA = [Japan]}

D. {EUROPE = [Germany], EUROPE = [Italy], ASIA = [Japan]}

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Given the code fragment:

Map books = new TreeMap();

books.put (1007, “A”);

books.put (1002, “C”);

books.put (1001, “B”);

books.put (1003, “B”);

System.out.println (books);

What is the result?

A. {1007 = A, 1002 = C, 1001 = B, 1003 = B}

B. {1001 = B, 1002 = C, 1003 = B, 1007 = A}

C. {1002 = C, 1003 = B, 1007 = A}

D. {1007 = A, 1001 = B, 1003 = B, 1002 = C}

Correct Answer: B

Reference: TreeMap inherits SortedMap and automatically sorts the element\’s key

… Read More →