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Question 1:

What is the best way to understand the location, use and importance of personal data within an organization?

A. By analyzing the data inventory.

B. By testing the security of data systems.

C. By evaluating methods for collecting data.

D. By interviewing employees tasked with data entry.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

What are you doing if you succumb to “overgeneralization” when analyzing data from metrics?

A. Using data that is too broad to capture specific meanings.

B. Possessing too many types of data to perform a valid analysis.

C. Using limited data in an attempt to support broad conclusions.

D. Trying to use several measurements to gauge one aspect of a program.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

In addition to regulatory requirements and business practices, what important factors must a global privacy strategy consider?

A. Monetary exchange.

B. Geographic features.

C. Political history.

D. Cultural norms.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What have experts identified as an important trend in privacy program development?

A. The narrowing of regulatory definitions of personal information.

B. The rollback of ambitious programs due to budgetary restraints.

C. The movement beyond crisis management to proactive prevention.

D. The stabilization of programs as the pace of new legal mandates slows.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the

development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application

that can be used in the home to manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor

appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be

made available for purchase worldwide.

The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable

for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to

use the application, a family creates a single account, and the primary user has access to all information

about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing

emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected marketing partners in order to be able to use the

application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay needed to look more closely at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is stored by Handy Helper for the additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka. Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What step in the system development process did Manasa skip?

A. Obtain express written consent from users of the Handy Helper regarding marketing.

B. Work with Sanjay to review any necessary privacy requirements to be built into the product.

C. Certify that the Handy Helper meets the requirements of the EU-US Privacy Shield Framework.

D. Build the artificial intelligence feature so that users would not have to input sensitive information into the Handy Helper.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the

development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application

that can be used in the home to manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor

appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be

made available for purchase worldwide.

The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable

for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to

use the application, a family creates a single account, and the primary user has access to all information

about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing

emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected marketing partners in order to be able to use the

application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European

distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay

needed to look more closely at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not

involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s

sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is

stored by Handy Helper for the additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of

the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all

Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka.

Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could

be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is

not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What administrative safeguards should be implemented to protect the collected data while in use by

Manasa and her product management team?

A. Document the data flows for the collected data.

B. Conduct a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) to evaluate the risks involved.

C. Implement a policy restricting data access on a “need to know” basis.

D. Limit data transfers to the US by keeping data collected in Europe within a local data center.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the

development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application

that can be used in the home to manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor

appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be

made available for purchase worldwide. The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that

it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any

further detail or privacy notice. In order to use the application, a family creates a single account, and the

primary user has access to all information about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must

check a box consenting to receive marketing emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected marketing

partners in order to be able to use the application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European

distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay

needed to look more closely at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not

involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s

sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is

stored by Handy Helper for the additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of

the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all

Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka.

Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could

be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is

not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What element of the Privacy by Design (PbD) framework might the Handy Helper violate?

A. Failure to obtain opt-in consent to marketing.

B. Failure to observe data localization requirements.

C. Failure to implement the least privilege access standard.

D. Failure to integrate privacy throughout the system development life cycle.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the

development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application

that can be used in the home to manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor

appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be

made available for purchase worldwide.

The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable

for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to

use the application, a family creates a single account, and the primary user has access to all information

about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected marketing partners in order to be able to use the application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay needed to look more closely at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is stored by Handy Helper for the additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka. Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What can Sanjay do to minimize the risks of offering the product in Europe? …

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[Latest Version] Easily Pass HPE6-A82 Exam With Updated HPE6-A82 Preparation Materials

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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

Where will the guests browser be redirected during a captive portal login attempt?

A. The redirect will time out and fail to resolve.

B. The captive portal page hosted on Aruba Central in the cloud.

C. The captive portal page hosted on the Aruba controller.

D. The captive portal page hosted on ClearPass.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

An organization has configured guest self-registration with internal sponsorship.

Which options can be configured to send guest users their credentials outside of the initial login web-page? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) server in ClearPass Policy Manager administration.

B. Configure a Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) server in ClearPass Guest administration.

C. Configure a Short Message Service (SMS) Gateway in ClearPass Policy Manager administration.

D. Configure a Short Message Service (SMS) Gateway under ClearPass Guest configuration.

E. Configure the self-registration page for the guest to receive a Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) receipt.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ClearPass/6.7/Guest/PDFs/Guest_User_Guide.pdf


Question 3:

When ClearPass is communicating with external context servers, which connection protocol is typically used?

A. FTP over SSH

B. REST APIs over HTTPS

C. SOAP and XML

D. YAML

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

ClearPass receives fingerprinting profile data for a client device that is based on MAC OUI, NMAP, DHCP, and OnGuard. Which fingerprint or fingerprints are used?

A. NMAP because it is actively obtained

B. The last fingerprint gathered

C. OnGuard because it is application based

D. All fingerprints are applied

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.catelsys.eu/images/Catelsys/images/2017/04/0-Notices-ClearPass_Policy_Manager_User_Guide-1.pdf


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

What does Search Base Dn do when joining an Active Directory domain? (Choose two.)

A. validates the connection details entered in the Connection Details

B. searches for the Base DN (Distinguished Name) based on what was typed in the field

C. sets the starting point in the directory tree for the Base DN (Distinguished Name) search

D. updates the Base DN (Distinguished Name) in Active Directory if no match is found

E. runs an Active Directory query that returns all results along with any matching the entered Base DN (Distinguished Name)

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ClearPass/6.8/Aruba_DeployGd_HTML/Content/LDAP and SQL Auth Sources/LDAP_Auth_Source.htm


Question 6:

What is the purpose of service rules in ClearPass?

A. selects the Enforcement Profiles used in a service

B. selects the Service to process a request

C. selects the Authentication Source for the client

D. selects the Posture Policy used with OnGuard

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What is a function of the posture token in ClearPass OnGuard? (Choose two.)

A. Identifies clients that are not security compliant.

B. Initiates the Auto-Remediation process.

C. Indicates the Health Status of the Client.

D. Denies access to unhealthy clients.

E. Controls access to network resources.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docplayer.net/18755148-Clearpass-onguard-configuration-guide.html (3)


Question 8:

Which ClearPass feature assesses endpoint context and client device type?

A. Profiling

B. Captive Portal

C. Onboard

D. Posture

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ClearPass/6.7/Aruba_DeployGd_HTML/Content/About ClearPass/About_ClearPass.htm


Question 9:

When should a role mapping policy be used in an 802.1x service with Active Directory as the authentication source?

A. When you want to match Active Directory attributes directly to an enforcement policy.

B. When you want to match Active Directory attributes to an Aruba firewall role on an Aruba Network Access Device.

C. When you want to translate and combine Active Directory attributes into ClearPass roles.

D. When you want to enable attributes as roles directly without combining multiple attributes.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What is a good collector type used for ClearPass to discover devices with static IP addresses?

A. DHCP Collectors

B. ClearPass Air Monitors

C. Active Collectors

D. Network Functions

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ClearPass/6.7/PolicyManager/Content/CPPM_UserGuide/PolicyProfile/Collectors.htm


Question 11:

When is it appropriate to use the built-in Local user database in ClearPass?

A. In a public-facing guest network environment where the guests are prompted to self-register.

B. In small-business environments where the user accounts rarely change and new accounts are uncommon.

C. In a hospitality deployment for guest accounts created and managed by staff.

D. In a large campus environment where Students and Contractors account for 35.000 entries that change weekly.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_61/ArubaOS_61_CLI/local-userdb.htm


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

When creating a new ClearPass Service, the [Time Source] has been added as an authorization source. What time source is ClearPass referencing?

A. the ClearPass server where Insight Master has been enabled

B. the local clock of the ClearPass server doing the authentication

C. the local time setting found on the authenticating client machine

D. the NTP (Network Time Protocol) source indicated in the Cluster settings

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What is an effect of the Cache Timeout setting on the authentication source settings for Active Directory?

A. ClearPass will validate the user credentials, then, for the duration of the cache, ClearPass will just fetch account attributes.

B. The Cache Timeout is designed to reduce the amount of traffic between ClearPass and the A/D server by caching the attributes.

C. ClearPass will validate the user credentials on the first attempt, then will always fetch the account attributes.

D. The Cache Timeout is designed to reduce the amount of traffic between ClearPass and the A/D server by caching the credentials.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.arubanetworks.com/blogs/arunkumar1/2020/10/20/what-is-the-difference-between-authentication-cache-timeout-and-machine-authentication-cache-timeout


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which user authentication request will match the service rules of the Policy Service shown?

A. a wireless user connection would fail because of miss-configured service rules

B. a wireless user connected to any SSID named “CORP”

C. a wireless user connecting to any SSID on an Aruba Controller

D. a wireless user connecting to an Aruba IAP on the SSID “CORP”

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

What is the significance of using the [Allow ALL MAC AUTH] as an Authentication Method for Guests?

A. Client attempts will fail without an additional Authentication method applied.

B. All clients with unknown endpoints will be granted guest access regardless of authorization.

C. All clients with known endpoints will be granted guest access regardless of authorization.

D. This removes the reliance on the known or unknown status for MAC authentication.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Instant_83_WebHelp/Content/Instant_UG/Authentication/AuthenticationMethods.htm


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[Newest Version] Free jn0-412 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

How to pass Newest jn0-412 pdf exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid latest jn0-412 dumps to boost your success rate in JNCIS-Cloud Jul 03,2022 Latest jn0-412 vce Cloud, Specialist (JNCIS-Cloud) exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We jn0-412 vce, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our JNCIS-Cloud materials.

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Question 1:

Click the Exhibit button.

The exhibit displays a Contrail analyzer virtual machine\’s console. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. The ping traffic is initiated by a virtual machine with an IP address of 20.0.0.3.

B. The ping traffic is initiated by a virtual machine with an IP address of 20.0.0.4.

C. The Contrail analyzer virtual machine\’s IP address is 10.85.29.11.

D. The Contrail analyzer virtual machine\’s IP address is 20.0.0.4.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 2:

You decide to create only host routes for each of your virtual networks in a project. Each virtual network is sent its correct host prefix. When troubleshooting inter-VN connectivity, using the ping command, the response times out between two virtual networks even though your policies allow for it.

What is the problem in this scenario?

A. The VMs do not have interfaces.

B. Using host routes prevents the default route from being sent.

C. Your VMs have incorrect DNS settings.

D. The IPAM settings are incorrect.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

What are two networking components of OpenStack? (Choose two.)

A. Neutron

B. Nova

C. Ironic

D. Barbican

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.openstack.org/newton/networking-guide/intro.html


Question 4:

Which two deployment methods does AppFormix support? (Choose two.)

A. Hyper-V

B. VMware

C. OpenStack

D. Xen

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/appformix/topics/concept/appformix-general

requirements.html


Question 5:

Which two statements about SDN and NFV are true? (Choose two.)

A. NFV separates network control and forwarding functions and provides a centralized view of the network.

B. SDN decouples network services from hardware appliances so they can run in software.

C. SDN separates network control and forwarding functions and provides a centralized view of the network.

D. NFV decouples network services from hardware appliances so they can run in software.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.sdxcentral.com/networking/nfv/definitions/whats-network-functions-virtualizationnfv/


Question 6:

What are three benefits of implementing an NFV solution? (Choose three.)

A. increased network speed using bandwidth management

B. reduced hardware requirements

C. automated services

D. tenants charged only for what they use

E. isolated switching functions

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

To retrieve attributes of a new virtual machine, with which Contrail component does the OpenStack Nova agent communicate to create a virtual network?

A. Neutron

B. Glance

C. Analytics

D. Control

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Prior to installing Contrail, which list of settings must be verified on all participating servers?

A. DHCP is enabled, hostname resolution, and that SSH is enabled

B. time synchronization, hostname resolution, and that FTP is enabled

C. time synchronization, hostname resolution, and that SSH is enabled

D. DHCP is enabled, hostname resolution, and that FTP is enabled

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/contrail2.0/information-products/pathway-pages/ getting-started.pdf


Question 9:

Which two statements regarding tags, within the Contrail Security framework, are correct? (Choose two.)

A. RBAC determines which user accounts can modify or remove attached tags.

B. Tags are communicated from the control node to vRouters through route updates.

C. Only the CSPadmin user account can modify or remove attached tags.

D. Tags are communicated from the config node to vRouters through route updates.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

Which two statements are true about AppFormix Heat maps? (Choose two.)

A. AppFormix Heat maps show historical performance at a glance.

B. AppFormix Heat maps show a visual chart of the relationship between hosts and VMs.

C. AppFormix Heat maps show real-time performance at a glance.

D. AppFormix Heat maps show a visual chart of the relationship between control and config nodes.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/appformix/topics/concept/appformix-heatmap.html


Question 11:

You are asked to change the settings in the AppFormix UI so that compute1\’s status displays “Bad” only when CPU utilization is above 70%.

In which workspace of the AppFormix UI would you perform this task?

A. SLA Settings

B. Notification Settings

C. Plugins

D. Services Settings

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which SDN solution allows the control plane to remain on legacy hardware as a stop-gap measure until you are ready to replace the current hardware?

A. SDN using NVGRE

B. SDN as an overlay

C. SDN using an API

D. open SDN

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which type of query is generated by the curl http://:8081/analytics/uves/vrouters command?

A. SSL

B. REST

C. SQL

D. XML

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What is AppFormix used for in Contrail?

A. to deploy an underlay fabric

B. to create VNFs

C. to analyze network performance

D. to secure application traffic

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which two statements are true about Generic Device Operations? (Choose two.)

A. Generic Device Operations execute multiple commands on multiple devices.

B. Generic Device Operations are executed using the REST API.

C. Generic Device Operations are executed using Ansible.

D. Generic Device Operations execute a single command on multiple devices.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/contrail19/topics/task/configuration/genericdevice-operational-commands.html


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Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Hotest DVA-C01 pdf dumps exam! Get yourself well prepared for the AWS Certified Associate Newest DVA-C01 free download AWS Certified Developer – Associate (DVA-C01) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update DVA-C01 practice tests. With We latest DVA-C01 dumps, you’ll pass the AWS Certified Associate Jun 30,2022 Hotest DVA-C01 pdf dumps AWS Certified Developer – Associate (DVA-C01) exam in an easy way

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Question 1:

You are inserting 1000 new items every second in a DynamoDB table. Once an hour these items are analyzed and then are no longer needed. You need to minimize provisioned throughput, storage, and API calls.

Given these requirements, what is the most efficient way to manage these Items after the analysis?

A. Retain the items in a single table

B. Delete items individually over a 24 hour period

C. Delete the table and create a new table per hour

D. Create a new table per hour

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You have written an application that uses the Elastic Load Balancing service to spread traffic to several

web servers. Your users complain that they are sometimes forced to login again in the middle of using your

application, after they have already logged in. This is not behavior you have designed.

What is a possible solution to prevent this happening?

A. Use instance memory to save session state.

B. Use instance storage to save session state.

C. Use EBS to save session state

D. Use ElastiCache to save session state.

E. Use Glacier to save session slate.

Correct Answer: D

https://aws.amazon.com/caching/session-management/


Question 3:

How can you secure data at rest on an EBS volume?

A. Attach the volume to an instance using EC2\’s SSL interface.

B. Write the data randomly instead of sequentially.

C. Use an encrypted file system on top of the BBS volume.

D. Encrypt the volume using the S3 server-side encryption service.

E. Create an IAM policy that restricts read and write access to the volume.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An application is designed to use Amazon SQS to manage messages from many independent senders. Each sender\’s messages must be processed in the order they are received.

Which SQS feature should be implemented by the Developer?

A. Configure each sender with a unique MessageGroupId

B. Enable MessageDeduplicationIds on the SQS queue

C. Configure each message with unique MessageGroupIds.

D. Enable ContentBasedDeduplication on the SQS queue

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A Developer wants to find a list of items in a global secondary index from an Amazon DynamoDB table.

Which DynamoDB API call can the Developer use in order to consume the LEAST number of read capacity units?

A. Scan operation using eventually-consistent reads

B. Query operation using strongly-consistent reads

C. Query operation using eventually-consistent reads

D. Scan operation using strongly-consistent reads

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/bp-query-scan.html


Question 6:

Queries to an Amazon DynamoDB table are consuming a large amount of read capacity. The table has a significant number of large attributes. The application does not need all of the attribute data.

How can DynamoDB costs be minimized while maximizing application performance?

A. Batch all the writes, and perform the write operations when no or few reads are being performed.

B. Create a global secondary index with a minimum set of projected attributes.

C. Implement exponential backoffs in the application.

D. Load balance the reads to the table using an Application Load Balancer.

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/APIReference/query-api-troubleshooting.html


Question 7:

An advertising company has a dynamic website with heavy traffic. The company wants to migrate the

website infrastructure to AWS to handle everything except website development.

Which solution BEST meets these requirements?

A. Use AWS VM Import to migrate a web server image to AWS Launch the image on a compute-optimized Amazon EC2 instanceLaunch.

B. Launch multiple Amazon Lighsall instance behind a load balancer. Set up the website on those instances.

C. Deploy the website code in an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment. Use Auto Scaling to scale the numbers of instance

D. Use Amazon S3 to host the website. Use Amazon CloudFornt to deliver the content at scale.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You are writing to a DynamoDB table and receive the following exception:” ProvisionedThroughputExceededException”. though according to your Cloudwatch metrics for the table, you are not exceeding your provisioned throughput.

What could be an for this?

A. You haven\’t provisioned enough DynamoDB storage instances

B. You\’re exceeding your capacity on a particular Range Key

C. You\’re exceeding your capacity on a particular Hash Key

D. You\’re exceeding your capacity on a particular Sort Key

E. You haven\’t configured DynamoDB Auto Scaling triggers

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/HowItWorks.CoreCompon ents.html#HowItWorks.CoreComponents.PrimaryKey https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/HowItWorks.Partitions.ht ml https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/bp-partition-key- design.html


Question 9:

A Developer is creating a web application that requires authentication, but also needs to support guest access to provide users limited access without having to authenticate. What service can provide support for the application to allow guest access?

A. IAM temporary credentials using AWS STS.

B. Amazon Directory Service

C. Amazon Cognito with unauthenticated access enabled

D. IAM with SAML integration

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/serverless-application-model/latest/developerguide/serverless-gettingstarted-hello-world.html https://docs.aws.amazon.com/serverless-application-model/latest/developerguide/sam-cli-commandreference-sam-deploy.html https://docs.aws.amazon.com/serverless-application-model/latest/developerguide/sam-cli-commandreference-sam-package.html


Question 10:

A company recently migrated its web, application and NoSQL database tiers to AWS. The company is using Auto Scaling to scale the web and application tiers. More than 95 percent of the Amazon DynamoDB requests are repeated read- requests.

How can the DynamoDB NoSQL tier be scaled up to cache these repeated requests?

A. Amazon EMR

B. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator

C. Amazon SQS

D. Amazon CloudFront

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/dynamodb/dax/


Question 11:

Which of the following services are key/value stores? Choose 3 answers A. Amazon ElastiCache

B. Simple Notification Service

C. DynamoDB

D. Simple Workflow Service

E. Simple Storage Service

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 12:

What type of block cipher does Amazon S3 offer for server side encryption?

A. Triple DES

B. Advanced Encryption Standard

C. Blowfish

D. RC5

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/serv-side-encryption.html


Question 13:

A company has an application that logs all information to Amazon S3. Whenever there is a new log file, an AWS Lambda function is invoked to process the log files. The code works, gathering all of the necessary information. However, when checking the Lambda function logs, duplicate entries with the same request ID are found.

What is causing the duplicate entries?

A. The S3 bucket name was specified incorrectly.

B. The Lambda function failed, and the Lambda service retired the invocation with a delay.

C. There was an S3 outage, which caused duplicate entries of the sale log file.

D. The application stopped intermittently and then resumed.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A Development team wants to instrument their code to provide more detailed information to AWS X-Ray than simple outgoing and incoming requests. This will generate large amounts of data, so the Development team wants to implement indexing so they can filter the data.

What should the Development team do to achieve this?

A. Add annotations to the segment document and the code

B. Add metadata to the segment document and the code

C. Configure the necessary X-Ray environment variables

D. Install required plugins for the appropriate AWS SDK

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/xray/latest/devguide/xray-sdk-python-segment.html

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/xray/latest/devguide/xray-concepts.html#xray-concepts-annotations


Question 15:

A Developer is going to deploy an AWS Lambda function that requires significant CPU utilization. Which approach will MINIMIZE the average runtime of the function?

A. Deploy the function into multiple AWS Regions

B. Deploy the function into multiple Availability Zones

C. Deploy the function using Lambda layers

D. Deploy the function with its memory allocation set to the maximum amount

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which two statements are true about NATs? (Choose two.)

A. NATs support UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic.

B. NATs can be configured with mirroring enabled or disabled.

C. NATs provide a one-to-one mapping between IP addresses.

D. NATs provide a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 2:

Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)

A. CLI access to the serial console port

B. SSH access to the management port

C. SSH access to any of the switch ports

D. HTTP access to the management port

E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports

F. HTTPS access to the management port

G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports

Correct Answer: ABF


Question 3:

Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIG- IP?

A. No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.

B. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must only exist.

C. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority.

D. The BIG-IP\’s SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which statement is true concerning iRule events?

A. All iRule events relate to HTTP processes.

B. All client traffic has data that could be used to trigger iRule events.

C. All iRule events are appropriate at any point in the client-server communication.

D. If an iRule references an event that doesn\’t occur during the client\’s communication, the client\’s connectionwill be terminated prematurely.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:any and has the following iRule associated with

it: whenCLIENT_ACCEPTED { if {[TCP::local_port] equals 80 } { pool pool1 } elseif{[TCP::local_port] equals 443 }{ pool pool2 } If a user connects to 10.10.1.100 and port 22,which pool will receive the request?

A. pool1.

B. pool2.

C. None. The request will be dropped.

D. Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A virtual server is defined per the charts. The last five client connections were to members C, D, A, B, B. Giventhe conditions shown in the above graphic, if a client with IP address 205.12.45.52 opens a connection to thevirtual server, which member will be used for the connection?

A. 172.16.20.1:80

B. 172.16.20.2:80

C. 172.16.20.3:80

D. 172.16.20.4:80

E. 172.16.20.5:80

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which are immediate results of entering the following command: b pool PoolA . { lb method predictive member10.10.1 .1:80 member 10.10.1.2:80 }

A. Requests sent to this BIG-IP system with a destination port of 80 are load-balanced between the membersof PoolA.

B. No changes will take place since the command is missing the monitor component for PoolA.

C. The /config/bigip.cinf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named PoolA.

D. A new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

What occurs when a save-config command is issued?

A. The current configuration files are backed up.

B. The current configuration files are verified for syntax, then the running configuration isinstalled in memory.

C. The current configuration files are loaded into memory.

D. The current configuration files are saved into an archive format.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

A monitor has been defined using the HTTP monitor template. The send and receive stringswere customized, but all other settings were left at their defaults. Which resources can themonitor be assigned to?

A. only specific pool members

B. most virtual severs

C. most nodes

D. most pools

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A GTM System performs a name resolution that is not a Wide-IP. The name is in a domainfor which the GTM System is authoritative. Where does the information come from?

A. It comes from BIND database (zone) files on the GTM System.

B. GTM System cannot resolve a host name that is not a Wide-IP.

C. It comes from the database of previously cached name resolutions.

D. It comes from a zone transfer initiated when the request was received

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

iQuery is a proprietary protocol that distributes metrics gathered from which three sources?(Choose three.)

A. SNMP

B. DNS root servers

C. Path probes such as ICMP

D. Monitors from LTM Systems

E. Monitors from Generic Host Servers

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 12:

Which three parameters can be specified within the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)

A. Password of the “root” user

B. IP address of an NTP server

C. IP address of an initial Wide-IP

D. IP address restrictions for ssh access

E. All necessary administrative IP addresses (including floating addresses)

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 13:

Which of the following does not pertain to protecting the Requested Resource (URI)element?

A. File type validation

B. URL name validation

C. Domain cookie validation

D. Attack signature validation

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following methods of protection is not available within the Protocol SecurityManager for HTTP traffic?

A. Data guard

B. Attack signatures

C. Evasion techniques

D. File type enforcement

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following is correct regarding static parameters?

A. A static parameter is stored in a frame cookie.

B. A static parameter is pre-defined by the web application logic.

C. A static parameter is learned only by using the Deployment Wizard.

D. A static parameter is mapped once when creating the application flow model.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

A Citrix Engineer needs to write a regular expression to treat the URL www.citrix.com as a literal string. Which regular expression can the engineer use?

A. www$.citrix$.com

B. [www\]. [citrix\]. [com\]

C. www .citrix .com

D. www\.citrix\.com

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A Citrix Engineer needs to ensure that clients always receive a fresh answer from the integrated cache for positive responses (response of 200). Which two settings can the engineer configure to make sure that clients receive a fresh response when it is needed? (Choose two.)

A. –flashCache NO

B. –pollEveryTime YES

C. –prefetch YES

D. –quickAbortSize

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

When the NetScaler marks a client connection as “non-trackable”, the default behavior of the NetScaler without making any change to the HTTP Profile is to ______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. proxy the connection to the target.

B. proxy the connection to the client.

C. track the connection.

D. drop the connection.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has migrated an application to NetScaler to secure it from application layer attacks. The engineer receives a complaint that the application is timing out while users are actively accessing the page. Those users are forced to reestablish the connection.

What can be the cause of this issue?

A. The maximum session lifetime is NOT configured.

B. The session time out is configured to a low value.

C. The application is configured with a low session timeout.

D. The maximum session lifetime is less than the session timeout.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which three options can be used to specify the destination of an HTTP Callout? (Choose three.)

A. Load balancing Virtual server

B. Global server load balancing Virtual server

C. NetScaler Gateway Virtual server

D. Content switching Virtual server

E. Cache redirection Virtual server

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 6:

A Citrix Engineer needs to implement Application Firewall to prevent the following tampering and vulnerabilities:

-If web server does NOT send a field to the user, the check should NOT allow the user to add that field and return data in the field.

-If a field is a read-only or hidden field, the check verifies that data has NOT changed.

-If a field is a list box or radio button field, the check verifies that data in the response corresponds to one of the values in that field.

Which security check can the engineer enable to meet this requirement?

A. Field Formats

B. Form Field Consistency

C. HTML Cross-Site Scripting

D. CSRF Form Tagging

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A Citrix Engineer has correctly installed and configured the NetScaler Web Logging (NSWL) client but has noticed that logs are NOT being updated. What could be causing this issue?

A. The TCP port 3011 is NOT open between the NSWL client and NetScaler.

B. The NSWL client executable is NOT running on the client.

C. The NSWL buffer is full on the NetScaler.

D. An NSIP is missing in the log.conf file

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has deployed Front-end Optimization on NetScaler. Below is the snippet of the content before and after optimization. Before Optimization:

After Optimization:

Which optimization technique has been applied to the content?

A. CSS Minify

B. CSS Combine

C. CSS Move to Head Tag

D. CSS Make Inline

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure the Application Firewall to do a credit card check using the command-line interface (CLI) and configure the profile to obscure the credit card number. Which parameter will the engineer add in the CLI to encrypt the credit card numbers in the logs?

A. -creditCardAction BLOCK

B. -creditCardMaxAllowed

C. -creditCardXOut ON

D. -doSecureCreditCardLogging ON

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A Citrix Engineer has received the following message after setting up Application Firewall in Learning mode.

August 28 6 03:14:27 XXX.0.0.2.08/28/2017:03:14:27 GMT VPXExtProd01 0- PPE-0: default GUI CMD_EXECUTED 1670370 0: User CitrixAdmin- Remote_ip XXX.19.XXX.XXX-Command “show appfw learningdata

WebPub_vs_af_1 startURL”- Status “ERROR: Communication error with aslearn”

What can the engineer perform to resolve the issue?

A. Reinstall the Application Firewall license.

B. Reboot the NetScaler appliance.

C. Disable the Application Firewall feature.

D. Delete the Profile database and restart the aslearn process.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which requirement must be addressed to implement the IP Reputation feature on a NetScaler MPX appliance?

A. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcti.brightcloud.com on port 443.

B. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 80.

C. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcss.brightcloud.com on port 80.

D. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 443.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which Markup Language is used along with NITRO API to create a StyleBook?

A. YAML

B. GML

C. XML

D. HTML

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has configured Security Insight on NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) with Firmware version 12.0.41.16 to monitor the Application Firewall.

The NetScaler ADC is running version 12.0.51.24 using Enterprise License with Application Firewall only License. However, after enabling Security insight, the engineer is NOT able to see any data under security insight.

What is causing this issue?

A. NetScaler should have a Standard License.

B. The NMAS version should be higher or equivalent to the NetScaler version.

C. NetScaler should have a Platinum license.

D. NMAS should be on Platinum license.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A Citrix Engineer needs to configure NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) in their network to retain network reporting data, events, audit logs, and task logs for 20 days. Which settings can the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

A. System Prune Settings

B. System Backup Settings

C. Instance Backup Settings

D. Syslog Prune Settings

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has configured a Denial-of-Service (DoS) protection on the NetScaler and found that client TCP connections are failing. After taking a packet trace, the engineer notices that the first packet was dropped and that the NetScaler terminated the connection due to DoS protection being enabled.

What step can the engineer take to resolve the client connection failure?

A. Enable the SYN COOKIE mechanism.

B. Enable Denial-of-Service TCP connections.

C. Disable the SYN COOKIE mechanism.

D. Change the services from TCP to HTTP.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which four statements are true regarding primary and foreign key constraints and the effect they can have on table data?

A. Only the primary key can be defined at the column and table level.

B. The foreign key columns and parent table primary key columns must have the same names.

C. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to remain in the child table at the time the parent row is deleted.

D. A table can have only one primary key but multiple foreign keys.

E. Primary key and foreign key constraints can be defined at both the column and table level.

F. A table can have only one primary key and one foreign key.

G. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to be deleted automatically from the child table at the time the parent row is deleted

Correct Answer: CDEG


Question 2:

Which three statements are true about performing Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations on a view In an Oracle Database?

A. Insert statements can always be done on a table through a view.

B. The WITH CHECK clause has no effect when deleting rows from the underlying table through the view.

C. Views cannot be used to query rows from an underlying table if the table has a PRIPOARY KEY and the PRIMARY KEY columns are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

D. Views cannot be used to add or modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains the DISTINCT keyword.

E. Views cannot be used to add on modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains aggregating functions.

F. Views cannot be used to add rows to an underlying table if the table has columns with NOT NULL constraints lacking default values Which are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

Correct Answer: DEF


Question 3:

Which four statements are true about constraints on Oracle tables?

A. A Column can have only one CHECK Constraint.

B. A NOT NULL Constraint can be defined at the table level.

C. A UNIQUE constraint permits NULLS.

D. A PRIMARY KEY Constraint can be added after a table has been created and populated.

E. A CHECK Constraint can refer to values in other rows.

F. A UNIQUE Constraint can use a pre-existing index on the constrained column or columns.

G. A FOREIGN KEY Column can contain NULLS.

Correct Answer: CDFG


Question 4:

Which three are true about multiple INSERT statements?

A. They can be performed only by using a subquery.

B. They can be performed on relational tables.

C. They can be performed on views.

D. They can be performed on remote tables.

E. They can be performed on external tables using SQL*Loader.

F. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

Which three statements are true about GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLES?

A. GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE rows inserted by a session are available to any other session whose user has been granted select on the table.

B. A TRUNCATE command issued in a session causes all rows In a GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE for the issuing session to be deleted.

C. A DELETE command on a GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE cannot be rolled back.

D. A GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE\’s definition is available to multiple sessions.

E. Any GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE rows existing at session termination will be deleted.

F. GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE space allocation occurs at session start.

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 6:

Which two statements are true about CURRENT_TIMEITAMP?

A. The date is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

B. The value varies depending on the setting of SESSIONTIMEZONE.

C. It returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE.

D. The time is in the time zone of DBTIMEZONE.

E. It returns a value of data type TIMESTAMP

F. It always returns the same value as SYSTIMESTAMP

Correct Answer: DF


Question 7:

Examine the description of the PRODUCTS table Which contains data:

Which two are true?

A. The PROD ID column can be renamed.

B. The PROD_ ID column data type can be changed to VARCHAR2 (2).

C. The EXPIRY DATE column data type can be changed to TIME STAMP.

D. The EXPIRY DATE column cannot be dropped.

E. The PROD NAME column cannot have a DEFAULT clause added to it.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 8:

Which two are true about the WITH GRANT OPTION clause?

A. The grantee can grant the object privilege to any user in the database, with of without including this option.

B. The grantee must have the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE system privilege to use this option.

C. It can be used when granting privileges to roles.

D. It can be used for system and object privileges.

E. It cannot be used to pass on privileges to PUBLIC by the grantee.

F. It can be used to pass on privileges to other users by the grantee.

Correct Answer: AF


Question 9:

Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.

B. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.

C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.

D. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.

E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.

F. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns support yearly intervals.

Correct Answer: EF


Question 10:

Which three statements are true about a self join?

A. It must be an inner join.

B. It can be an outer join.

C. The ON clause must be used.

D. It must be an equation.

E. The query must use two different aliases for the table.

F. The ON clause can be used.

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 11:

Which two statements are true about Oracle synonyms?

A. A synonym can have a synonym.

B. A synonym has an object number.

C. Any user can create a public synonym.

D. All private synonym names must be unique in the database.

E. A synonym can be created on an object in a package.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

The CUSTOMERS table has a CUST_CREDT_LIMIT column of data type number.

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’)) FROM customers;

B. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

C. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit * .15,\’Not Available\’) FROM customers;

D. SLECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’Not available\’) from customers;

E. SELECT NVL2(cust_credit_limit,TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit * .15),\’NOT Available\’) FROM customers;

Correct Answer: DE


Question 13:

In Which three situations does a new transaction always start?

A. When issuing a SELECT FOR UPDATE statement after a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement was issued in the same session

B. When issuing a CREATE INDEX statement after a CREATE TABLE statement completed unsuccessfully in the same session

C. When issuing a TRUNCATE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

D. When issuing a CREATE TABLE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

E. When issuing the first Data Manipulation Language (OML) statement after a COMMIT or ROLLBACK statement was issued in the same session

F. When issuing a DML statement after a DML statement filed in the same session.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 14:

You issued this command: DROP TABLE hr. employees; Which three statements are true?

A. ALL constraints defined on HR, EMPLOYEES are dropped.

B. The HR. EMPLOYEES table may be moved to the recycle bin.

C. Synonyms for HR EMPLOYEES are dropped.

D. Sequences used to populate columns in the HR. EMPLOYEES table are dropped.

E. All indexes defined on HR, EMPLOYEES are dropped.

F. Views referencing HR, EMPLOYEES are dropped.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

Examine this business rule:

Each student can work on multiple projects and earth project can have multiple students.

You must decide an Entity Relationship (ER) model for optional data storage and allow generating reports

in this format:

STUDENT_ID FIRST_NAME LAST_NAME PROJECT_ID PROJECT_NAME PROJECT_TASK Which two statements are true?

A. An associative table must be created with a composite key of STUDENT_ID and PROJECT_ID, Which is the foreign key linked to the STUDENTS and PROJECTS entities.

B. The ER must have a many-to-many relationship between the STUDENTS and PROJECTS entities that must be resolved into 1-to-many relationships.

C. PROJECT_ID must be the primary key in the PROJECTS entity and foreign key in the STUDENTS entity.

D. The ER must have a 1-to-many relationship between the STUDENTS and PROJECTS entities.

E. STUDENT_ID must be the primary key in the STUDENTS entity and foreign key in the PROJECTS entity.

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

Which two statements are true about Real-Time Query?

A. Setting STANDBY_MAX_DATA_DELAY =0 requires synchronous redo transport.

B. Disabling Real-Time Query prevents the automatic start of redo apply when a physical standby database is opened READ ONLY.

C. Real-Time Query sessions can be connected to a Far Sync instance.

D. Real-Time Query has no limitations regarding the protection level of the Data Guard environment.

E. A standby database enabled for Real-Time Query cannot be the Fast-Start Failover target of the Data Guard configuration.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

Which three statements are true about standby redo logs in a Data Guard configuration with no Oracle Streams or Goldengate configured?

A. They are required on a logical standby for real-time apply

B. They are required only for synchronous redo transport.

C. Only standby databases can write redo to them.

D. It is recommended to have them on the primary database.

E. They are required on a physical standby for real-time apply.

F. The LGWR process writes to them on a standby database.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 3:

Your Data Guard environment has one physical standby database using Real-Time Query.

Two sentences have been created by these SQL statements:

create sequence a global; create sequence b session;

Neither sequence has been used since being created Session 1 connects to the primary database instance and issues these two SQL statements:

SELECT a.nextval FROM DUAL;

SELECT b nextval FROM DUAL;

Then session 2 connects to the physical standby database instance and issues the same SQL statements.

What output will be seen for session 2?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Examine the Data Guard configuration: DGMGRL > show configuration; Configuration-Animals

Protection Mode MaxPerformance Databases dogs-Primary database sheep-Snapshot standby database cats-Snapshot standby database Fast-Start Failover: DISABLED Configuration Status: SUCCESS

You receive an error while attempting to raise the protection mode to Maximum Availability:

DGMGDRL> edit configuration set protection mode as max availability;

Error ORA-16627 operation disallowed since no standby databases would remain to support protection mode Failed.

Identify two statements that you can execute, either one of which will enable successful raising of the protection mode to Maximum Availability.

A. DGMGRL> convert database sheep to physical standby;

B. DGMGRL> convert database cats to physical standby;

C. DGMGRL> edit database dogs set property LogXptMode= fastsync;

D. DGMGRL> edit database sheep set property LogXptMode= fastsync;

E. DGMGRL> edit database cats set property LogXptMode= sync;

Correct Answer: BE


Question 5:

Which three steps are prerequisites for the creation of a physical standby database on a separate server using the RMAN active database duplication method?

A. Set the DB_UNIQUE_NAME parameter on the primary database to a different value than that of the DB_NAME parameter.

B. Put the primary database into archivelog mode

C. Startup nomount the standby database instance.

D. Configure Oracle Net connectivity on the primary host to the standby database instance.

E. Establish user equivalence for the database software owner between the primary host and standby host.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 6:

Examine the Data Guard configuration:

Which three will be true after a switchover to Sheep?

A. Dogs will be an enabled logical standby database.

B. Sheep will be the primary database.

C. Cats will be a disabled physical standby database.

D. Dogs will be a disabled logical standby database

E. Cats will be an enabled physical standby database.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 7:

Which two are prerequisites for configuring Transaction Guard in a Data Guard environment?

A. Grant execute permission on the DBMS_APP_CONT package to relevant database schema owners

B. Create a database service with COMMIT_OUTCOME set to TRUE, and ensure clients use that service to connect to the database instance.

C. Ensure that connection descriptors for database clients use the failover clause with the COMMIT_OUTCOME parameter set to TRUE

D. Set INSTANCE_NAME identically on all the Data Guard Configuration databases and modify the local service name on the client to include a CONNECTION_LIST containing all the standby hosts.

E. Create a database service with COMMIT_OUTCOME set to TRUE and ensure that the service is statically registered with the default listener on the primary host

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Which two statements are true about Real-Time Query?

A. Setting STANDBY_MAX_DATA_DELAY =0 requires synchronous redo transport.

B. Disabling Real-Time Query prevents the automatic start of redo apply when a physical standby database is opened READ ONLY.

C. Real-Time Query sessions can be connected to a Far Sync instance.

D. Real-Time Query has no limitations regarding the protection level of the Data Guard environment.

E. A standby database enabled for Real-Time Query cannot be the Fast-Start Failover target of the Data Guard configuration.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

You administer a Data Guard environment with a primary and two physical standby databases.

One of the physical standby databases is used for reporting and is on the same host as the primary database.

The other physical standby database is remote, used for disaster recovery and REDO is routed to it via a far sync instance.

Backups are offloaded to the remote physical standby.

Which three are true concerning the management of archive logs in this Data Guard configuration?

A. Archive logs on the primary database may be deleted once they are applied on all standby databases.

B. Archive logs on the primary database may be deleted once they are shipped on all standby databases.

C. The deletion policy for archive logs on the remote physical standby should be set so that archived logs are deleted once they backed up at least once on the remote physical standby database.

D. The deletion policy for archive logs on the remote physical standby should be set so that archived logs are deleted once they are applied on all standby databases.

E. Archive logs on the primary database may be deleted once they are archived locally to disk.

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 10:

Which three statements are true about snapshot standby databases?

A. Snapshot standby databases may be used for rolling release upgrades.

B. if datafiles grow while a database is a snapshot standby database, then they shrink when converted back to a physical standby database.

C. Flashback logs are used to convert a snapshot standby database back into a physical standby database.

D. a snapshot standby database can have Real-Time Query enabled

E. A guaranteed restore point is created automatically when a physical standby database is converted into a snapshot standby database.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 11:

You must configure an Oracle Data Guard environment consisting of:

1.

A primary database

2.

A Physical Standby Database

3.

A Snapshot Standby Database

You must meet these requirements:

1.

Primary database availability should not be compromised by the availability of the standby databases.

2.

Under normal operations, transactions executed on the primary database should not commit before redo is written to disk on the primary database and on at least one standby database.

Which redo transport mode, and which protection mode should you configure to meet these requirements?

A. SYNC AFFIRM and Maximum Protection

B. SYNC NOAFFIRM and Maximum Protection

C. SYNC AFFIRM and Maximum Availability

D. SYNC NOAFFIRM and Maximum Availability

E. ASYNC and Maximum Performance

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which three are prerequisites for enabling Fast-Start Failover?

A. The Fast-Start Failover target standby database must receive REDO directly from the primary database

B. Flashback Database must be enabled on both the primary database and the Fast-Start Failover target standby database.

C. Flashback Database must be enabled only on the Fast-Start Failover target standby database.

D. The configuration must be operating in either Maximum Performance or Maximum Availability mode

E. The configuration must be operating in either Maximum Performance or Maximum Protection mode

F. The Data Guard environment must be managed by the Data Guard Broker.

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 13:

Examine the Data Guard configuration after an accidental switchover to Sheep: Which three will be true after a switchover to Dogs?

A. Sheep will be a disabled logical standby database.

B. Sheep will be an enabled logical standby database.

C. Cats will be a disabled physical standby database that can be manually enabled.

D. Cats will be an enabled physical standby database.

E. Dogs will be the primary database.

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 14:

You must manually reinstate a database using DGMGRL

To which database should you connect with DGMGRL before issuing the REINSTATE command and in which state should the target database be?

A. The target database should be in NOMOUNT state and DGMGRL should be connected to any database that is a member of the configuration

B. The target database should be MOUNTED and DGMGRL should be connected to any database that is a member of the configuration

C. The target database should be MOUNTED and DGMGRL should be connected to the primary database.

D. The target database should be MOUNTED and DGMGRL should be connected to the target database

E. The target database should be in NOMOUNT state and DGMGRL should be connected to the primary database

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which three statements are true about Data Guard configurations?

A. All databases in one Data Guard environment must have the same database name.

B. VALID_FOR is a LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_N attribute that enables DB role change operations without having to modify LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n when performing switchovers or failovers.

C. For Standard Edition, LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST is used to configure redo transport, from the primary to the standby database.

D. When using the Data Guard Broker, an spfile is not required.

E. Up to 30 physical standby databases may exist within one configuration.

F. The Oracle recommendation for the number of standby redo log groups per thread is one more than the number of online redo log groups per thread

Correct Answer: AEF


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[PDF and VCE] Free Share 1Z0-820 PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Real Exam Questions

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your Oracle Partner Network Latest 1Z0-820 pdf Upgrade to Oracle Solaris 11 System Administrator exam. We will assist you clear the Jun 22,2022 Newest 1Z0-820 QAs exam with Oracle Partner Network 1Z0-820 new questions. We 1Z0-820 pdf are the most comprehensive ones.

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Question 1:

For an Oracle Solaris 11 Automated Installation (Al), select the two properties that can be configured using System Configuration profiles (SC profiles). (Choose two.)

A. IP address of the Al server

B. passwords for user accounts

C. target disk slice for installation

D. NWAM active network configuration profile (NCP)

E. IP address of the IPS (Image Packaging System) repository

F. SI_MANIFEST_SCRIPT, which defines the URL of the manifest script

Correct Answer: BF


Question 2:

You want to deploy Oracle Solans 11 with the Automated Installer (Al). You need to make sure that your server and network meet the requirements for using Al Choose the three options that describe the requirements for using Al. (Choose three.)

A. You must set up DHCP. The DHCP server and Al install server can be the same machine or two different machines.

B. You can create only one manifest per install service. If you need more than one manifest, create multiple install services.

C. The minimum requirement to operate as an Al install server is 1 GB of memory.

D. If two client machines have different architectures and need to be installed with the same version of the Oracle Solaris 11 OS( then create two Al manifests and a single install service.

E. Load the install/installadm package on the Al server.

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 3:

You need to update an OS image on a client. The pkg publisher command displays the wrong publisher with the wrong update:

PUBLISHERTYPESTATUSURI

solansohQinonlinehttp://DkQ.oracle.conVsolaris/release The update is available on this updated publisher:

PUBLISHERTYPESTATUSURI

solarisoriQJnonlinehttp://svsA.example.com

Select the option that describes the procedure used to update the OS image on this system from the updated publisher.

A. Copy the repository from the ISO image onto the local client. Configure the repository on the client by using the svccfg -s command so that the Solaris publisher is connected to the new repository Refresh the application/pkg/server service. Issue the pkgrepo refresh command to refresh the repository catalog

B. Configure the publisher on the client using the svccfg -s command so that the solans publisher is connected to the repository at http://svsA.example.com. Refresh the application/pkg/server service. Issue the pkgrepo refresh command to refresh the repository catalog

C. Use the pkg set-publisher command lo change the URL of the publisher solans to htto://svsA example.com. Issue the pkg update command to update the OS Image.

D. Add the new publisher http://svsA.example.com Solaris. Use the pkg set-publisher command to set the publisher search order and place http://svsA example com ahead of http://pkg.oracle.com/solaris/release. Issue the pkg publisher command to view the publishers. Set the new publisher to sticky. Issue the pkg update command to update the OS image-

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Your server hangs intermittently and you believe it may be due to either faulty hardware or a driver. The support technician has told you to generate a live core dump of all memory pages for further analysis Your dump configuration is: Dump content: kernel pages Dump device: /dev/zvol/dsk/rpool/dump (dedicated) Savecore directory: /var/crash Savecore enabled: yes Save compressed: on You don\’t have enough space on the current dump device, so you need to store the dump on /dev/zvol/dsk/pool2/dump Which option would you select to change the dump location for the next core dump and capture the content of all memory pages as requested by the support technician?

A. dumpadm -d /dev/zvol/dsk/pool2/dump

B. dumpadm -d /dev/zvol/dsk/pool2/dump -c all

C. dumpadm -d /dev/zvol/dsk/pool2/dump -c curproc

D. dumpadm -s /dev/zvol/dsk/pool2/dump -c all

E. dumpadm -s /dev/zvol/dsk/pool2/dump

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

The core dump configuration for your system is:

A user is running a process in the global zone and the process crashes. The process information is:

User1 2663 2618 0 17:46:42 pts/2 0:00 /usr/bin/bash

The server host name is: zeus

What will the per-process core file be named?

A. core.bash.2663.global

B. core.bash.2663.zeus

C. /var/core/core.bash.2663

D. /var/core/core.bash.2663.global

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Note the first line:

global core file pattern: /globalcore/core.%f.%p

The program name is bash

The runtime process ID is 2663

Note: By default, the global core dump is disabled. You need to use the coreadm command with the -e global option to enable it. The -g option causes the command to append the program name(%f) and the runtime process ID (%p) to the

core file name.

Reference: Core Dump Management on the Solaris OS


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[Newest Version] Free DES-4121 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

How to pass Hotest DES-4121 pdf dumps exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid DES-4121 braindumps to boost your success rate in DECS-IE – Implementation Engineer Jun 19,2022 Latest DES-4121 free download PowerEdge Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineer exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We DES-4121 pdf, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our DECS-IE – Implementation Engineer materials.

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Question 1:

A technician creates two virtual disks and assigns a dedicated hot spare to each virtual disk. They also create a global hot spare. A drive fails on the second virtual disk. What is the result?

A. Dedicated hot spare for the virtual disk replaces the failed drive.

B. Global hot spare replaces the failed drive.

C. Copyback operation occurs between the failed drive and the dedicated hot spare.

D. Copyback operation occurs between the failed drive and the global hot spare.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.dell.com/support/article/pk/en/pkbsd1/sln305775/dell-poweredge-how-to-assign-a-hard-drive-in-global-hot-spare-?lang=en


Question 2:

A technician needs to set a server to always attempt PXE boot before booting to the hard drive. What actions does the technician need to take to achieve this?

A. Change the Boot Sequence so the network card is first Remove all boot options except network card

B. Change the Boot Sequence so the network card is first Disable the boot option for the hard drive

C. Set the Legacy Boot Protocol for the network card to PXE Change the Boot Sequence so the network card is first

D. Set the Legacy Boot Protocol for the network card to PXE Select PXE Boot from F11 Boot Manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A technician plugs in a server that has dual power supply units. After powering on the system, they notice that the power supply status indicators blink green then turn off. What troubleshooting steps should the technician take to resolve this issue?

A. Set the power supply redundancy option to `No Redundancy\’

B. Check that the PSUs are not connected to a 240VAC source

C. Update the iDRAC firmware to enable control of new PSU features

D. Check that the PSUs are the same efficiency, feature set, health status, and supported voltage

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://qrl.dell.com/Files/en-us/Html/Manuals/R630/Power indicator codes=GUID-FBD2281B-1608-4FF8-9AFE-4E33BB6FF810=1=en-us=.html


Question 4:

Before deploying a server, a customer needs a technician to configure the front panel LCD to display a custom message that contains the customer\’s help desk phone number. However, the server cannot be rebooted. Where can the technician configure the LCD?

A. Lifecycle Controller

B. iDRAC web GUI

C. System BIOS

D. iSM

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A technician is experiencing a compatibility issue that causes network disconnects between the iDRAC firmware and an application that is running. The iDRAC must be rolled back to the last working version. The Enterprise licensed server cannot be rebooted outside scheduled maintenance windows. The next scheduled window is one month away. Where should the technician perform the Firmware Rollback?

A. Dell System Update Utility

B. iDRAC GUI

C. Repository Manager

D. Lifecycle Controller

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=5andcad=rjaanduact=8andved=2ahUKEwidt9Hq0p_eAhWkgM4BHbQXDqgQFjAEegQIAhACandurl=http://dwn.alza.cz/manual% 2F13654andusg=AOvVaw0S8LXmDnb17ijrR9uxLlk3


Question 6:

A technician is setting up a previously used server. Upon power up, the PERC alerts them to the presence of a foreign configuration. In the iDRAC storage section, the technician checks Foreign View. The foreign array configuration is the same as the configuration needed for the new project. What is a recommended way to prepare the disks for the new project?

A. Edit the foreign configuration and set it to Ready

B. Import the foreign configuration and perform a full initialization

C. Format the foreign configuration and clear the controller configuration

D. Access the Ctrl R utility, clear the foreign configuration and set up array as needed

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.dell.com/community/PowerEdge-HDD-SCSI-RAID/PERC-H310-active-drives-are-listed-in-foreign-config/td-p/6126153


Question 7:

A system administrator needs to install OpenManage Server Administrator on 200 servers. What is the quickest way to meet this requirement?

A. Use the Lifecycle Controller to install OpenManage Server Administrator on each server.

B. Install OME and push OpenManage Server Administrator to all 200 servers.

C. Use Microsoft utilities to automate the deployment of OpenManage Server Administrator.

D. Download OpenManage Server Administrator from Dell.com and install on each server.

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.dell.com/support/home/pk/en/pkbsd1/drivers/driversdetails?driverid=r89613


Question 8:

A user has a server with only one processor installed with 6x 32 GB RDIMMs. A technician was asked to install a second processor. After installing the second processor, the technician finds that the second processor is not operational. What should be done to make the second processor operational?

A. The second CPU socket needs to be enabled

B. Logical processing must be enabled in the BIOS

C. The iDRAC license needs to be at either Express or Enterprise levels

D. The RDIMMs need to be moved so that there are three RDIMMs on each CPU

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A server is being up as a VMware ESXi host. A technician needs to install the OS on an internal SD card. They install the SD card. However, during OS installation, the SD card is not visible. What should the technician do to fix the issue?

A. Enable the SD card in the BIOS Settings

B. Format the SD card with an EXT3 partition before installation

C. Move the SD card from slot 2 to slot 1

D. Use Lifecycle Controller to install the SD card

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=16andcad=rjaanduact=8andved=2ahUKEwjj2eCyj6HeAhWyxYUKHW4sBJYQFjAPegQIAhACandurl=https://www.sos.state.co.us/pubs/elections% 2FVotingSystems/DVS-DemocracySuite/documentation% 2FDell_Poweredge_R630_Owner_Manual.pdfandusg=AOvVaw2slkf77AG7CKsMUwdpiwVa


Question 10:

A technician is sent-on-site to troubleshoot a server that reports errors during POST when rebooted. The following error message is displayed: “Correctable memory error rate exceeded for DIMM B4”. The LCD is amber. The server has a limited maintenance window so the technician needs to troubleshoot efficiently. What should the technician do?

A. Swap DIMM with A4 to narrow down the issue

B. Replace DIMM B4 as time is limited

C. Swap DIMM B4 with B2

D. Reseat all memory

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.dell.com/community/PowerEdge-Hardware-General/PowerEdge-R720-memory-error-limit-reached/td-p/4411799


Question 11:

A technician needs to deploy a server into production and needs to verify that the firmware levels match corporate policy before putting the server on the business network. Which method is recommended for verifying the firmware version of iDRAC and BIOS?

A. Scroll through the menus on the LCD panel to view the BIOS and iDRAC firmware levels

B. SSH into the iDRAC and run the racadm systemconfig command to view current firmware

C. Use the Lifecycle Controller and navigate to Firmware Update to view current versions

D. Use the OMSA DVD that came with the server to view Current Drivers and Firmware

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A PowerEdge R640 server has a failure on one of its onboard NICs and sends an alert to technician support. The assigned technician needs to order a FRU to resolve the issue. What action should the technician take?

A. Replace the system board after first backing up the server profile

B. Order a new NDC and replace the failing NDC

C. Use the iDRAC to reset the NDC to default values then reconfigure. If that fails replace the NDC

D. Order a new NIC port then replace the failing NIC port on the NDC

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A user installed OME on a PowerEdge R640 server. OME has discovered and is currently monitoring another 30 remote PowerEdge 14G servers. Each server has the following configuration:

2x CPUs 384 GB RAM 6x 1TB drives in a RAID 6 virtual disk No hot spare drive PERC vFlash iDRAC9 Express license

At 9 PM on Monday evening, one of the remote servers has a disk failure but stays operational. The administrator monitoring OME does not find out about the issue until 5 PM in the following Friday. They place a support call to investigate why OME was not informed about the disk failure before then.

What is the reason for this issue not being reported to OME?

A. Remote servers are not configured with OME as the trap destination address. OME discovered the issue during a routing status check which is configured to run at 5 PM every Friday.

B. OME only updates its alert database at 5 PM every Friday.

C. Remote servers are not configured with OME as the trap destination address. OME was informed of the issue when remote servers sent alerts at 5 PM Friday.

D. Remote servers need to have the iDRAC Enterprise license installed to be able to send alerts.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

A technician needs to troubleshoot a server. The OS had been operational, but an untrained person accessed the System Setup utility on the server and now the OS fails to load. The technician reboots the server, selects F2, accesses the System Setup utility, and selects System BIOS.

What two items should the technician verify in the System BIOS settings before reloading the OS?

A. Boot Settings > Boot Option Settings > Boot Sequence Integrated Devices > OS Watchdog Timer

B. Boot Settings > Boot Mode Boot Settings > Boot Option Settings > Boot Sequence

C. Boot Settings > Boot Mode Integrated Devices > OS Watchdog Timer

D. Boot Settings > Boot Mode Device Settings > Boot Sequence

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A technician is using the iDRAC web GUI to upload a firmware that requires a reboot. They select the update and choose `Apply Update and Reboot Now\’. How could the technician determine the status of the firmware update?

A. Access the System Setup Utility > iDRAC Settings and check the completion status in the Job Queue.

B. Log in to the iDRAC web GUI and check the completion status in the Job Queue.

C. Monitor the iDRAC web interface for an “Updates Completed” message in the iDRAC.

D. Access the Lifecycle Controller > Firmware Updates menu and check the completion status in the Job Queue.

Correct Answer: D


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