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Question 1:

Traditional IT infrastructure architecture is already unable to support efficient enterprise operations. Which of the following is not a key cause?

A. High TCO

B. Slow network rates

C. Slow service rollout and complex lifecycle management

D. I/O bottlenecks restricting application performance

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which of the following statements about public clouds is false?

A. A public cloud can have a large number of users

B. Public clouds can optimize resources at scale

C. An enterprise uses their in-house infrastructure to build up a public cloud, which provides internal IT services for the enterprise

D. Public clouds are accessible over the Internet

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

The Identify and Access Management (IAM) service is enabled by default and is free of charge.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/introduction.html


Question 4:

Which of the following statements about ECSs are true? (Choose all that apply.)

A. You can view ECS resources on the console

B. You can create and delete ECSs, reinstall and change OSs, and start or stop ECSs

C. You can use public images, private images, or shared images to apply for ECSs

D. You can add and remove extension NICs, add EIPs, attach and detach disks, and create key pairs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagement-service


Question 5:

ECSs in different AZs of the same region cannot access each other.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062377/4f5ef30/region-and-az


Question 6:

If the capacity of the data disk attached to an ECS is insufficient, the user must detach the disk and buy an EVS disk with a larger capacity.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062382/63985099/managing-huaweicloud-evs-disks


Question 7:

Which of the following may result in failure to enable an AS policy? (Choose all that apply.)

A. No alarm policy is configured

B. The trigger time of the scheduled policy has expired

C. The system is abnormal

D. The effective time of the periodic policy has expired

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

What operations can a shared image provider perform? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Add tenants who can use a shared image

B. Share a specified image

C. Remove tenants who can use a shared image

D. Delete a shared image

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagement-service


Question 9:

If Cloudbase-Init is not installed for a private image, you will not be able to inject custom information into a Windows ECS created from this image. As a result, you can only use the password specified in this image to log in to the ECS.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062377/4b42c508/creating-awindows-private-image-using-an-ecs


Question 10:

Which of the following statements about the relationship between BMS and other cloud services is false?

A. After you apply for a BMS, you can install the Agent plug-in on it and complete mandatory settings. You can view BMS metrics in Cloud Eye

B. BMSs can be physically isolated without being deployed in a dedicated computing cluster

C. Images can be used to create BMSs, which improves the efficiency of BMS deployment

D. EVS disks can be attached to a BMS and the disk capacity can be expanded on demand

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/en-us/product/dcc.html


Question 11:

Which of the following are container orchestration tools? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Kubernetes

B. OpenShift

C. Docker Swarm

D. Mesos

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://www.slant.co/topics/3929/~best-docker-orchestration-tools


Question 12:

To delete a shared EVS disk that is attached to multiple cloud servers, you must detach it from all the cloud servers first.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100085788/803b4381/releasing-an-evsdisk


Question 13:

CBR supports four types of backups: EVS disk backups, cloud server backups, file system backups, and hybrid cloud backups.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-cbr/cbr_01_0002.html


Question 14:

The default backup policy of EVS cannot be deleted.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100105753/2648734d/deleting-a-backuppolicy


Question 15:

Which of the following statements about EVS and snapshots is false?

A. You can roll back a snapshot to the source EVS disk when the disk is in the Available state

B. A snapshot can be rolled back to any designated EVS disk

C. If data on an EVS disk has errors or is corrupted, you can roll back the data snapshot to the source disk to restore the data

D. Creating a snapshot will fail if the EVS disk is in the Attaching state or Expanding state

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/productdesc-evs/en-us_topic_0066809008.html


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Question 1:

A company is deploying ArubaOS-CX switches to support 135 employees, which will tunnel client traffic to an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC) for the MC to apply firewall policies and deep packet inspection (DPI). This MC will be dedicated to receiving traffic from the ArubaOS-CX switches.

What are the licensing requirements for the MC?

A. one AP license per-switch

B. one PEF license per-switch

C. one PEF license per-switch. and one WCC license per-switch

D. one AP license per-switch. and one PEF license per-switch

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which is a correct description of a stage in the Lockheed Martin kill chain?

A. In the delivery stage, malware collects valuable data and delivers or exfilltrated it to the hacker.

B. In the reconnaissance stage, the hacker assesses the impact of the attack and how much information was exfilltrated.

C. In the weaponization stage, which occurs after malware has been delivered to a system, the malware executes Its function.

D. In the exploitation and installation phases, malware creates a backdoor into the infected system for the hacker.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

You are deploying a new ArubaOS Mobility Controller (MC), which is enforcing authentication to Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM). The authentication is not working correctly, and you find the error shown In the exhibit in the CPPM Event Viewer.

What should you check?

A. that the MC has been added as a domain machine on the Active Directory domain with which CPPM is synchronized

B. that the snared secret configured for the CPPM authentication server matches the one defined for the device on CPPM

C. that the IP address that the MC is using to reach CPPM matches the one defined for the device on CPPM

D. that the MC has valid admin credentials configured on it for logging into the CPPM

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A diem is connected to an ArubaOS Mobility Controller. The exhibit snows all Tour firewall rules that apply to this diem

What correctly describes how the controller treats HTTPS packets to these two IP addresses, both of which are on the other side of the firewall?

10.1 10.10

203.0.13.5

A. It drops both of the packets

B. It permits the packet to 10.1.10.10 and drops the packet to 203 0.13.5

C. it permits both of the packets

D. It drops the packet to 10.1.10.10 and permits the packet to 203.0.13.5.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is one way that WPA3-PerSonal enhances security when compared to WPA2- Personal?

A. WPA3-Perscn3i is more secure against password leaking Because all users nave their own username and password

B. WPA3-Personai prevents eavesdropping on other users\’ wireless traffic by a user who knows the passphrase for the WLAN.

C. WPA3-Personai is more resistant to passphrase cracking Because it requires passphrases to be at least 12 characters

D. WPA3-Personal is more complicated to deploy because it requires a backend authentication server

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You have been asked to rind logs related to port authentication on an ArubaOS-CX switch for events logged in the past several hours But. you are having trouble searching through the logs. What is one approach that you can take to find the relevant logs?

A. Add the “-C and *-c port-access” options to the “show logging” command.

B. Configure a logging Tiller for the “port-access” category, and apply that filter globally.

C. Enable debugging for “portaccess” to move the relevant logs to a buffer.

D. Specify a logging facility that selects for “port-access” messages.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

How can you use the thumbprint?

A. Install this thumbprint on management stations to use as two-factor authentication along with manager usernames and passwords, this will ensure managers connect from valid stations

B. Copy the thumbprint to other Aruba switches to establish a consistent SSH Key for all switches this will enable managers to connect to the switches securely with less effort

C. When you first connect to the switch with SSH from a management station, make sure that the thumbprint matches to ensure that a man-in-t he-mid die (MITM) attack is not occurring

D. install this thumbprint on management stations the stations can then authenticate with the thumbprint instead of admins having to enter usernames and passwords.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What is a benefit of deploying Aruba ClearPass Device insight?

A. Highly accurate endpoint classification for environments with many devices types, including Internet of Things (loT)

B. visibility into devices\’ 802.1X supplicant settings and automated certificate deployment

C. Agent-based analysts of devices\’ security settings and health status, with the ability to implement quarantining

D. Simpler troubleshooting of ClearPass solutions across an environment with multiple ClearPass Policy Managers

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What are the roles of 802.1X authenticators and authentication servers?

A. The authenticator stores the user account database, while the server stores access policies.

B. The authenticator supports only EAP, while the authentication server supports only RADIUS.

C. The authenticator is a RADIUS client and the authentication server is a RADIUS server.

D. The authenticator makes access decisions and the server communicates them to the supplicant.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution.

What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?

A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\’s HTTPS certificate

B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports

C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Swrtches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\’s IP address.

D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What is a difference between radius and TACACS ?

A. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization process while TACACS separates them.

B. RADIUS uses TCP for Its connection protocol, while TACACS uses UDP tor its connection protocol.

C. RADIUS encrypts the complete packet, white TACACS only offers partial encryption.

D. RADIUS uses Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) in its messages, while TACACS does not use them.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You have been instructed to look in the ArubaOS Security Dashboard\’s client list Your goal is to find clients mat belong to the company and have connected to devices that might belong to hackers.

Which client fits this description?

A. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6d;a4; Client Classification Authorized; AP Classification, interfering

B. MAC address d8:50:e6 f3;6e;c5; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Neighbor

C. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6e;60; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Interfering

D. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;TO;ab; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Rogue

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

From which solution can ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) receive detailed information about client device type OS and status?

A. ClearPass Onboard

B. ClearPass Access Tracker

C. ClearPass OnGuard

D. ClearPass Guest

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You are troubleshooting an authentication issue for Aruba switches that enforce 802 IX10 a cluster of Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPMs) You know that CPPM Is receiving and processing the authentication requests because the Aruba switches are showing Access-Rejects in their statistics However, you cannot find the record tor the Access- Rejects in CPPM Access Tracker.

What is something you can do to look for the records?

A. Make sure that CPPM cluster settings are configured to show Access-Rejects

B. Verify that you are logged in to the CPPM Ul with read-write, not read-only, access

C. Click Edit in Access viewer and make sure that the correct servers are selected.

D. Go to the CPPM Event Viewer, because this is where RADIUS Access Rejects are stored.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A company with 382 employees wants to deploy an open WLAN for guests. The company wants the experience to be as follows:

The company also wants to provide encryption for the network for devices mat are capable, you implement Tor the WLAN.

Which security options should?

A. WPA3-Personal and MAC-Auth

B. Captive portal and WPA3-Personai

C. Captive portal and Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) in transition mode

D. Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) and WPA3-Personal

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

On the RAID management page, the disk status is listed as Initializing.

What does the status Initializing indicate about what the FortiAnalyzer is currently doing?

A. FortiAnalyzer is ensuring that the parity data of a redundant drive is valid

B. FortiAnalyzer is writing data to a newly added hard drive to restore it to an optimal state

C. FortiAnalyzer is writing to all of its hard drives to make the array fault tolerant

D. FortiAnalyzer is functioning normally

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/4cb0dce6-dbef-11e9-897700505692583a/FortiAnalyzer-5.6.10-Administration-Guide.pdf (40)


Question 2:

What is the recommended method of expanding disk space on a FortiAnalyzer VM?

A. From the VM host manager, add an additional virtual disk and use the #execute lvm extend command to expand the storage

B. From the VM host manager, expand the size of the existing virtual disk

C. From the VM host manager, expand the size of the existing virtual disk and use the # execute format disk command to reformat the disk

D. From the VM host manager, add an additional virtual disk and rebuild your RAID array

Correct Answer: A

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD40848


Question 3:

On FortiAnalyzer, what is a wildcard administrator account?

A. An account that permits access to members of an LDAP group

B. An account that allows guest access with read-only privileges

C. An account that requires two-factor authentication

D. An account that validates against any user account on a FortiAuthenticator

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/747268/configuring-wildcard-admin-accounts


Question 4:

Consider the CLI command:

What is the purpose of the command?

A. To add a unique tag to each log to prove that it came from this FortiAnalyzer

B. To add the MD5 hash value and authentication code

C. To add a log file checksum

D. To encrypt log communications

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/cli-reference/849211/global


Question 5:

Which statements are true regarding securing communications between FortiAnalyzer and FortiGate with SSL? (Choose two.)

A. SSL is the default setting.

B. SSL communications are auto-negotiated between the two devices.

C. SSL can send logs in real-time only.

D. SSL encryption levels are globally set on FortiAnalyzer.

E. FortiAnalyzer encryption level must be equal to, or higher than, FortiGate.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 6:

You need to upgrade your FortiAnalyzer firmware.

What happens to the logs being sent to FortiAnalyzer from FortiGate during the time FortiAnalyzer is temporarily unavailable?

A. FortiAnalyzer uses log fetching to retrieve the logs when back online

B. FortiGate uses the miglogd process to cache the logs

C. The logfiled process stores logs in offline mode

D. Logs are dropped

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer \’s treatment of high availability (HA) dusters? (Choose two)

A. FortiAnalyzer distinguishes different devices by their serial number.

B. FortiAnalyzer receives logs from d devices in a duster.

C. FortiAnalyzer receives bgs only from the primary device in the cluster.

D. FortiAnalyzer only needs to know (he serial number of the primary device in the cluster-it automaticaly discovers the other devices.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

What can you do on FortiAnalyzer to restrict administrative access from specific locations?

A. Configure trusted hosts for that administrator.

B. Enable geo-location services on accessible interface.

C. Configure two-factor authentication with a remote RADIUS server.

D. Configure an ADOM for respective location.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/hardening-your-fortigate/582009/systemadministrator-best-practices


Question 9:

View the exhibit.

Why is the total quota less than the total system storage?

A. 3.6% of the system storage is already being used.

B. Some space is reserved for system use, such as storage of compression files, upload files, and temporary report files

C. The oftpd process has not archived the logs yet

D. The logfiled process is just estimating the total quota

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/administration-guide/368682/disk-space-allocation


Question 10:

Which log type does the FortiAnalyzer indicators of compromise feature use to identify infected hosts?

A. Antivirus logs

B. Web filter logs

C. IPS logs

D. Application control logs

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fa/faz50hlp/60/6-0-2/Content/ FortiAnalyzer_Admin_Guide/3600_FortiView/0200_Using_FortiView/1200_Compromised_ hosts_page.htm?TocPath=FortiView|Using FortiView|_____6


Question 11:

If you upgrade the FortiAnalyzer firmware, which report element can be affected?

A. Custom datasets

B. Report scheduling

C. Report settings

D. Output profiles

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/upgrade-guide/669300/checking-reports


Question 12:

What is the main purpose of using an NTP server on FortiAnalyzer and all of its registered devices?

A. Log correlation

B. Host name resolution

C. Log collection

D. Real-time forwarding

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which statement is true regarding Macros on FortiAnalyzer?

A. Macros are ADOM specific and each ADOM will have unique macros relevant to that ADOM.

B. Macros are supported only on the FortiGate ADOM.

C. Macros are useful in generating excel log files automatically based on the reports settings.

D. Macros are predefined templates for reports and cannot be customized.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs2.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.3/administration-guide/617380/creatingmacros


Question 14:

What happens when a log file saved on FortiAnalyzer disks reaches the size specified in the device log settings?

A. The log file is stored as a raw log and is available for analytic support.

B. The log file rolls over and is archived.

C. The log file is purged from the database.

D. The log file is overwritten.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/6d9f8fb5-6cf4-11e9-81a400505692583a/FortiAnalyzer-6.0.5-Administration-Guide.pdf https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/administration-guide/355632/log-browse


Question 15:

What FortiView tool can you use to automatically build a dataset and chart based on a filtered search result?

A. Chart Builder

B. Export to Report Chart

C. Dataset Library

D. Custom View

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/cookbook/989203/building-charts-with-chart-builder


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Question 1:

You are implementing a multi-AP WLAN and fast secure roaming is essential. Which one of the following methods is an IEEE 802.11 standard method for fast roaming?

A. Band steering

B. FT

C. OKC

D. Load balancing

Correct Answer: B

Reference https://www.networkcomputing.com/wireless-infrastructure/wifi-fast-roaming-simplified/1993108957


Question 2:

You are reporting on the RF environment in you facility. The manager asks you do describe the noise floor noted in the report. Which of the following is the best explanation?

A. The energy radiated by flooring materials that causes interference in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands.

B. The noise caused by elevators, microwave ovens, and video transmitters.

C. The RF energy that exists in the environment from intentional and unintentional RF radiators that forms the baseline above which the Intentional signal of your WLAN must exist.

D. The extra energy radiated by access points and client devices beyond that intended for the signal.

Correct Answer: B

Reference http://blog.prosig.com/2008/04/14/what-is-db-noise-floor-dynamic-range/


Question 3:

Lynne runs a small hotel, and as a value added for his customers he has implemented a Wi-Fi hot-spot. Lynne has read news articles about how hackers wait at hot-spots trying to take advantage of unsuspecting users. He wants to avoid this problem at his hotel.

What is an efficient and practical step that Lynne can take to decrease the likelihood of active attacks on his customers\’ wireless computers?

A. Implement Network Access Control (NAC) and require antivirus and firewall software along with OS patches.

B. Implement an SSL VPN in the WLAN controller that initiates after HTTPS login.

C. Enable station-to-station traffic blocking by the access points in the hotel.

D. Require EAP_FAST authentication and provide customers with a username/password on their receipt.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

The BSA of an AP covers the area used by the sales and marketing department. Thirty-five stations operate in this space. The user indicate that they need more throughput and all stations are 5 GHz capable 802.11ac clients. The current AP configuration uses 20 MHz channels in both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. What is the least expensive solution available for increasing throughput for these users without implementing configuration options that are not recommended?

A. Use a 160 MHz channel on the 5 GHz radio

B. Use a 40 MHz channel on the 5 GHz radio

C. Install a second AP in the coverage area

D. Use a 40 MHz channel on the 2.4 GHz radio.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A client complains of low data rates on his computer. When you evaluate the situation, you see that the signal strength is -84 dBm and the noise floor is -96 dBm. The client is an 802.11ac client and connects to an 802.11acAP. Both the client and AP are 2×2:2 devices. What is the likely cause of the low data rate issue?

A. Weak signal strength

B. Too few spatial streams

C. Lack of support 802.11n

D. CAT5e cabling run to the AP

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What common feature of MDM solutions can be used to protect enterprise data on mobile devices?

A. Over-the-air registration

B. Onboarding

C. Containerization

D. Self-registration

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

During a post-implementation survey, you have detected a non-802.11 wireless device transmitting in the area used by handheld 802.11g scanners. What is the most important factor in determining the impact of this non-802.11 device?

A. Protocols utilized

B. Channel occupied

C. Receive sensitivity

D. Airtime utilization

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You are tasked with performing a throughput test on the WLAN. The manager asks that you use open source tools to reduce costs. What open source tool is designed to perform a throughput test?

A. IxChariot

B. Python

C. PuTTy

D. iPerf

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You are installing AP to be used by 23 laptops. All laptops will connect on the 5 GHz frequency band. A neighbor network uses channels 1 and 6. What channel should be used for this AP and why?

A. Channel 6, because it is always best to use this channel

B. A 5 GHz channel, because channels 1 and 6 are 2.4 GHz channels they have no impact on the decision

C. Channel 1, because it is best to use the channel with the lowest frequency

D. Channel 11, because channels 1 and 6 are in use nearby

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

You are attempting to locate the cause of a performance problem in two WLAN cells in a mostly overlapping coverage area. You note that one AP is on channel 1 and the other is on channel 2. When you document your findings, what term do you use to describe the problem in this configuration?

A. Bluetooth interference

B. Non-Wi-Fi interference

C. CCI

D. ACI

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

You are planning for PoE in a standard office deployment. Which one of these devices is least likely to be a PoE PD?

A. Video camera

B. Access point

C. VoIP phone

D. Ethernet switch

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

You are configuring an access point to use channel 128. What important fact should be considered about this channel?

A. It is a 22 MHz channel so it will overlap with the channels above and below it

B. It is a 2.4 GHz frequency band 40 MHz channel, so it should not be used

C. It is a channel that is unsupported by most access points

D. It is a channel that likely requires DFS when used

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A WLAN is implemented using wireless controllers. The APs must locate the controllers when powered on and connected to the network. Which one of the following methods is commonly used to locate the controllers by the APs?

A. DHCP

B. GRE

C. NTP

D. SNMP

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=YEW0DAAAQBAJandpg=SA7-PA9andlpg=SA7-PA9anddq=methods is commonly used to locate the controllers by the APsandsource=blandots=O2sMDljjDVandsig=M1_gvQnGaWfGg13Pbb1xTkflklAandhl=enandsa=Xandved=0ahUKEwj3hvmPoaLZAhWRPFAKHb5MAyQQ6AEIJzAA#v=onepageandq=methods is commonly used to locate the% 20controllers by the APsandf=false


Question 14:

What standard is referenced in the 802.11-2016 specification and is recommended for robust WLAN client security?

A. SSID hiding

B. WEP

C. 802.1X/EAP

D. IPSec VPN

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A dual-band 802.11ac AP must be powered by PoE. As a class 4 device, what power level should be received at the AP?

A. 30 W

B. 25.5 W

C. 15.4 W

D. 12.95 W

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

The following SAS program is submitted:

data work.accounting;

set work.dept1 work.dept2;

jobcode = `FA1\’;

length jobcode $ 8;

run;

A character variable named JOBCODE is contained in both the WORK.DEPT1 and WORK.DEPT2 SAS data sets. The variable JOBCODE has a length of 5 in the WORK.DEPT1 data set and a length of 7 in the WORK.DEPT2 data set.

What is the length of the variable JOBCODE in the output data set?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 7

D. 8

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Given the SAS data set SASDATA TWO:

SASDATA TWO X Y

5 2

3 1

5 6

The following SAS program is submitted:

data sasuser.one two sasdata.three;

set sasdata two;

if x = 5 then output sasuser.one;

else output sasdata two;

run;

What is the result?

A. data set SASUSER.ONE has 5 observations data set SASUSER.TWO has 5 observations data set WORK.OTHER has 3 observations

B. data set SASUSER.ONE has 2 observations data set SASUSER.TWO has 2 observations data set WORK.OTHER has 1 observations

C. data set SASUSER.ONE has 2 observations data set SASUSER.TWO has 2 observations data set WORK.OTHER has 5 observations

D. No data sets are output. The DATA step fails execution due to syntax errors.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Given the raw data record DEPT:

—-|—-10—|—-20—|—-30

Printing 750

The following SAS program is submitted:

data bonus;

infile `dept\’;

inputdept$ 1-11 number 13- 15;

run;

Which SAS statement completes the program and results in a value of `Printing750\’ for the DEPARTMENT variable?

A. department = dept II number;

B. department = left(dept) II number;

C. department = trim(dept) number; D. department=trim(dept)||put(number,3.);

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

The following SAS program is submitted:

data one;

addressl = `214 London Way\’;

run;

data one;

set one;

address = tranwrd(address1, `Way\’, `Drive\’); run;

What are the length and value of the variable ADDRESS?

A. Length is 14; value is `214 London Dri\’.

B. Length is 14; value is `214 London Way\’.

C. Length is 16; value is `214 London Drive\’.

D. Length is 200; value is `214 London Drive\’.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

The following SAS program is submitted:

proc sort data = work.employee;

by descending fname;

proc sort data = work.salary;

by descending fname;

data work.empdata;

merge work.employee

work.salary;

by fname;

run;

Why does the program rail to execute?

A. The SORT procedures contain invalid syntax.

B. The merged data sets are not permanent SAS data sets.

C. The RUN statement was omitted alter each or the SORT procedures.

D. The data sets were not merged in the order by which they were sorted.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Given the following raw data record:

—-I—-10—I—-20—I—-30 son Travis, The following output is desired: Obs relation firstname 1 son Travis

Which SAS program correctly reads in the raw data?

A. data family ( dIm = `,\’); infile `tile specification\’; input relation $ firstname $; run;

B. options dIm = `,\’; data family; infile `file specification\’; input relation $ firstname $; run;

C. data family; infile `file specification\’ dIm = `,\’; input relation $ firstname $; run;

D. data family; infile `file specification\’; input relation $ firstname $ / dim = `,\’; run;

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

The following SAS program is submitted:

data work.passengers;

if OrigPassengers = . then\’

OrigPassengers = 100;

TransPassengers = 100;

OrigPassengers = .;

TotalPassengers = sum (OrigPassengers, TransPassengers) 0;

run;

What is the value of the TOTALPASSENGERS variable in the output data set?

A. 0

B. 100

C. 200

D. (missing numeric value)

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Given the SAS data set PRICES:

PRICES Prodid price producttype sales returns K125 5.10 NETWORK 15 2 B132S 2.34 HARDWARE 300 10 R18KY2 1.29 SOFTWARE 25 5 3KL8BY 6.37 HARDWARE 125 15 DY65DW 5.60 HARDWARE 45 5 DGTY23 4.55 HARDWARE 67 2 The following SAS program is submitted: data hware inter cheap; set prices(keep = productype price); if producttype = `HARDWARE\’ then output hware; else if producttype = `NETWORK\’ then output inter; if price le 5.00; run; if producttype = `HARDWARE\’ then output hware; else if producttype = `NETWORK\’ then output inter; if price le 5.00; run;

How many observations does the HWARE data set contain?

A. 0

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

The following SAS program is submitted:

How many observations are written to the WORK.SALES data set?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 5

D. 60

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

The following SAS program is submitted:

The program fails execution due to syntax errors. What is the cause of the syntax error?

A. The variable MONTHSALES does not exist.

B. An array cannot be referenced on a KEEP data set option.

C. The KEEP= data set option should be (KEEP = MONTHSALES).

D. The KEEP= data set option should be the statement KEEP MONTHSALES{12}.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

The following SAS program is submitted:

data test;

set chemists;

jobcode = `Chem2\’

then description = `Senior Chemist\’;

else description = `Unknown\’;

run;

The value for the variable JOBCODE is:

JOBCODE

chem2

What is the value of the variable DESCRIPTION?

A. chem2

B. Unknown

C. Senior Chemist

D. ` ` (missing character value)

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Given the AIRPLANES data set

AlRPLANES TYPE MPG

F-18 105

C-130 25

Harrier 75

A-6 110

The following SAS program is submitted:

data gt100;

set airplanes(keep = type mpg load);

load = mpg * 150;

run;

The program fails to execute due to syntax errors.

What is the cause of the syntax error?

A. MPG is not a numeric variable.

B. LOAD is not a variable in the data set GT100.

C. LOAD is not variable in the data set AIRPLANES.

D. LOAD must be defined prior to the SET statement.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The following SAS program is submitted:

data temp.x; set sasuser.y; run;

What must be submitted prior to this SAS program for the program to execute successfully?

A. A LIBNAME statement for the libref TEMP only must be submitted.

B. A LIBNAME statement for the libref SASUSER only must be submitted.

C. LIBNAME statements for the librefs TEMP and SASUSER must be submitted.

D. No LIBNAME statement needs to be submitted.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Given the SAS data set EMPLOYEE INFO:

EMPLOYEE_INFO IDNumber Expenses 2542 100.00 3612 133.15 2198 234.34 2198 111.12

The following SAS program is submitted:

proc sort data = employee_info; run;

Which BY statement completes the program and sorts the data sequentially by ascending expense values within each ascending IDNUMBER value?

A. by Expenses IDNumber;

B. by IDNumber Expenses;

C. by ascending Expenses IDNumber;

D. by ascending IDNumber ascending Expenses;

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

The following SAS program is submitted:

data work.test;

set work.staff (keep = jansales febsales marsales);

array diff_sales{3} difsales1 – difsales3;

array monthly{3} jansales febsales marsales;

run;

What new variables are created?

A. JANSALES, FEBSALES and MARSALES

B. MONTHLY1, MONTHLY2 and MONTHLY3

C. DIFSALES1, DIFSALES2 and DIFSALES3

D. DIFF_SALES1, DIFF_SALES2 and DIFF_SALES3

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

View the exhibit and examine the structure of the products table.

Examine the following code:

Which statement is true when the procedure DELETE_DETAILS is invoked?

A. It executes successfully but no error messages get recorded in the DEBUG_OUTPUT table

B. It executes successfully and any error messages get recorded in the DEBUG_OUTPUT table.

C. It gives an error because PRAGMA AUTONOMOUS_TRANSACTION can be used only in packaged procedures.

D. It gives an error because procedures containing PRAGMA AUTONOMOUS_TRANSACTION cannot be called from the exception section.

Correct Answer: A

In this case, the debug output will only occur if there is an exception.


Question 2:

View Exhibit 1 and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

View Exhibit 2 and examine the code.

What would be the outcome when the code is executed?

A. It executes successfully.

B. It gives an error because the SAL variable is not visible in the INCREASE function.

C. It gives an error because the INCREASE function cannot be called from the RAISE_SALARY procedure.

D. It gives an error because the INCREASE function and the RAISE_SALARY procedure should be declared at the beginning of the DECLARE section before all the other declarations.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

What is the correct definition of the persistent state of a packaged variable?

A. It is a private variable defined in a procedure or function within a package body whose value is consistent within a user session.

B. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is consistent within a user session.

C. It is a private variable in a package body whose value is consistent across all current active sessions.

D. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is always consistent across all current active sessions.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Identify two situations where the DBMS_SQL package should be used. (Choose two.)

A. The SELECT list is not known until run time.

B. The dynamic SQL statement retrieves rows into records.

C. You do not know how many columns a SELECT statement will return, or what their data types will be.

D. You must use the % FOUND SQL cursor attribute after issuing a dynamic SQL statement that is an INSERT or UPDATE statement.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 5:

View the Exhibit and examine the code.

Why does the code give an error on execution?

A. because the WORD_LIST variable is not visible in PROCEDURE WORDING

B. because the LEXICON variable is not visible in PROCEDURE ADD_ENTRY

C. because the LEXICON variable is not initialized in PROCEDURE WORDING

D. because the WORD_LIST parameter in IN OUT mode cannot be of a RECORD data type

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the AUDIT_CUST table.

CUST_ID and CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT are existing columns in the CUSTOMER table. Examine the following trigger code:

Which statement is true about the above trigger?

A. It gives an error on compilation because it should be a statement-level trigger.

B. It compiles and fires successfully when the credit limit is updated in the customer table.

C. It gives an error on compilation because of the commit command in the trigger code.

D. It compiles successfully, but gives an error when the credit limit is updated in the CUSTOMER table because the PRAGMA AUTONOMOUS_TRANSACTION statement should be introduced in the trigger.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which two statements are true about the INSTEAD OF triggers? (Choose two.)

A. DELETE operations cannot be performed using the INSTEAD OF triggers.

B. The INSTEAD OF triggers must be created to add or modify data through any view.

C. The INSTEAD OF triggers can be written only for views, and the BEFORE and AFTER timing options are not valid.

D. The CHECK option for views is not enforced when insertions or updates to the view are performed by using the INSTEAD OF triggers.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the employees table.

Examine the following block of code:

What is the outcome when the above code is executed?

A. It executes successfully.

B. It gives an error because decode cannot be used in a PL/SQL block.

C. It gives an error because the AVG function cannot be used in a PL/SQL block

D. It gives an error because the MONTHS_BETWEEN function cannot be used in a PL/SQL block.

E. It gives an error because both the AVG and decode functions cannot be used in a PL/SQL block.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Examine the following code:

Which two statements are true about the above function? (Choose two.)

A. It can be used only in a parallelized query.

B. It can be used in both a parallelized query and a parallelized DML statement.

C. It can be used only in a parallelized data manipulation language (DML) statement.

D. It can have a separate copy run in each of the multiple processes when called from a SQL statement that is run in parallel.

E. It requires a PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES declaration with RNDS, WNDS, RNPS, and WNPS specified in order to use parallel optimization.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 10:

/temp/my_files is an existing folder in the server, facultylist.txt is an existing text file in this folder.

Examine the following commands that are executed by the DBA:

SQL>CREATE DIRECTION my_dir AS `/temp/my_files\’:

SQL>GRANT READ ON DIRECTORY my_dir To public:

View the Exhibit and examine the procedure created by user SCOTT to read the list of faculty names from the text file.

SCOTT executes the procedure as follows:

SQL>SET SERVEROUTPUT ON

SQL>EXEC read_file (`MY_DIR\’, FACULTYLIST.TXT\’)

What is the outcome?

A. It goes into an infinite loop.

B. It executes successfully and displays only the list of faculty names.

C. It does not execute and displays an error message because the end-of-file condition is not taken care of.

D. It executes successfully and displays the list of faculty names followed by a “no data found” error message.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

User SCOTT has been granted CREATE ANY TRIGGER and ALTER ANY TABLE by the DBA. HR is an existing schema in the database.

SCOTT creates the following trigger:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER drop_trigger

BEFORE DROP ON hr.SCHEMA

BEGIN

RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR (-20000, `Cannot drop object\’);

END;

SCOTT does not grant the EXECUTE privilege on this trigger to any other users.

For which user(s) would this trigger fire by default when they drop an object in the HR schema?

A. Only HR

B. SCOTT and HR

C. Only SCOTT

D. SCOTT, HR, and SYS

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

View the Exhibit and examine the code and its outcome on execution: What would be the effect on the two procedures if the value of debug is set to FALSE? (Choose two.)

A. MY_PROC2 is not recompiled.

B. MY_PROC1 is recompiled but remains unchanged.

C. MY_PROC2 is recompiled but remains unchanged.

D. MY_PROC1 is recompiled without the debugging code.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

Identify two features of obfuscation. (Choose two.)

A. The Import and Export utilities accept wrapped files.

B. SQL\’ Plus cannot process the obfuscated source files.

C. Only the wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.

D. Both the DBMS_DDL package and the Wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.

E. The source code is visible only through the DBA_SOURCE view and not through the USER_SOURCE or ALL_SOURCE View

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

You create the following table and execute the following code:

Which statement is true about the outcome of the above code?

A. It executes successfully and all the rows are updated.

B. It raises an exception but saves the inserted rows and the update to the first row.

C. It gives an error but saves the inserted rows; however, no rows are updated.

D. It gives an error and all the data manipulation language (DML) statements are rolled back.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

You want to create a trigger that fires whenever rows are deleted from the customer table and that displays the number of rows remaining in the table.

Which two statements are correct about the trigger to be created for the above requirement? (Choose two.)

A. It should be an after trigger.

B. It should be a before trigger.

C. It should be a row-level trigger.

D. It should be a statement-level trigger.

E. It can be a before or an after trigger.

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

A. All metrics are instance related.

B. Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.

C. A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved.

D. They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.

E. Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.

F. STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.

Correct Answer: CEF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e41573/autostat.htm#PFGRF027 https://blogs.oracle.com/oem/how-to-clear-an-alert-v2


Question 2:

For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)

A. to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB.

B. to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB

C. to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB

D. to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB

E. to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB

F. to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed

Correct Answer: EF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/12.2/admin/creating-andremoving-pdbs-with-sql-plus.html#GUID-1C47D543-8376-48AE-A1AE-632316731D59


Question 3:

Which three actions are performed by the Oracle Preinstallation RPM, oracle-database-server-xxxxpreinstall, for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, where xxxx is the Oracle version and release? (Choose three.)

A. performing checks to ensure minimum configuration requirements for Oracle Grid Infrastructure are met

B. creating the oracle OS user

C. creating the OSDBA (dba) group

D. creating thte oraInventory (oinstall) group

E. creating the grid OS user

F. configuring the OS for Oracle Automatic Storage Management shared storage access

Correct Answer: CDF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/install.112/e41961/prelinux.htm#CWLIN2932


Question 4:

Which two are true about common objects? (Choose two.)

A. They can be created only in CDB$ROOT.

B. They can be only metadata-linked in an application container.

C. They can exist in user-defined schemas only in application containers.

D. They can exist in CDB$ROOT and an application root.

E. They can be extended data-linked in CDB$ROOT.

F. They can be created only in an application root.

Correct Answer: EF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://blog.toadworld.com/2017/08/01/oracle-multi-tenant-application-containers-part-iiisharing-of-data-in-application-common-objects


Question 5:

Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diasnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)

A. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.

B. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.

C. A DBA can run it manually.

D. Results are written to the alert log.

E. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last day of activity.

Correct Answer: BD

Section: (none)


Question 6:

You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.

The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.

The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.

Examine this list of actions:

1.

Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.

2.

Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.

3.

Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data fies to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.

4.

Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.

5.

Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.

6.

Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination system.

7.

Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.

8.

Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.

Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?

A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8

B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8

C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)


Question 7:

A container database called CDB1 is OMF-enabled. PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT is not configured in CDB1. PDB1 was unplugged from CDB1 earlier in the week. Examine this command, which will be executed in CDB1: CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1

USING `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml\’ SOURCE_FILE_NAME_CONVERT = (`/u01/app/oracle/oradata/\’, `/u02/app/oracle/oradata/\’);

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. PDB1 data files already exist in the correct location.

B. DBMS_PDB.CHECK_PLUG_COMPATIBILITY must be run in CDB1 before executing the command.

C. PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT must be set before executing the command.

D. /u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml does not contain the current locations of data files for PDB1.

E. PDB1 must be dropped from CDB1.

Correct Answer: CD

Section: (none)

Reference: http://anjaniappsdba.blogspot.com/2016/09/oracle-database-12102c-hot-cloning-of.html


Question 8:

Which three are true about transporting databases across platforms using Recovery Manager (RMAN) image copies? (Choose three.)

A. By default, the transported database will use Oracle Managed Files (OMF)

B. Data files can be converted on the destination system.

C. Data files can be converted on the source system.

D. A new DBID is automatically created for the transported database.

E. Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats.

F. The password file is automatically converted by RMAN.

Correct Answer: CEF

Section: (none)

Password file is automatically converted by RMAN.


Question 9:

Which two are true about changing the LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED property to false in a CDB? (Choose two.)

A. After the change, only a common user with the required privilege can create an undo tablespace in CDBandROOT.

B. Any new PDB and existing PDBs are automatically configured to use the default undo tablespace in CDB$ROOT.

C. After the change, only one undo tablespace can exist in CDB$ROOT.

D. After the change, any user with the required privilege can create an undo tablespace in the PDBs.

E. Undo tablespaces existing in PDBs must be dropped before the change.

F. After the change, each existing PDB has to be reopened for the new undo mode to take effect.

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/18/multi/creating-and-configuring-a-cdb.html#GUID-12ADA04D-F81D-4579-A68C-0958CC7D6C2F


Question 10:

Which two are true about SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)? (Choose two.)

A. It is integrated with the SQL Access Advisor.

B. It predicts the impact of system changes on SQL workload response time.

C. It provides before and after execution statistics for each SQL statement in the analysis task

D. It offers fine-grained analysis of all the SQL statements in the analysis task as a group.

E. SQL statements that were originally run concurrently are run concurrently by SPA.

Correct Answer: BD

Section: (none)

Reference: https://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/manageability/spa-ow09-131455.pdf (4)


Question 11:

Which two are true about gathering optimizer statistics? (Choose two.)

A. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open PDBs except PDB$SEED.

B. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to a PDB opened in read/ write mode gathers object statistics for that PDB.

C. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT.

D. System statistics can be gathered only while connected to CDB$ROOT.

E. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open pluggable databases (PDBs)

Correct Answer: CE

Section: (none)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/20/arpls/DBMS_STATS.html


Question 12:

Which two are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets? (Choose two.)

A. A duplexed backup set uses the same number of SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.

B. A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.

C. A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.

D. A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.

E. A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.

F. A duplexed backup set always uses twice as many SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.

Correct Answer: DF

Section: (none)


Question 13:

Which three are true about RMAN persistent configuration settings, administration, and their effects? (Choose three.)

A. A target database\’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target\’s control file

B. Backup older than the recovery window retention policy are always deleted automatically if the backup location has insufficient space.

C. Backups written to the fast recovery area (FRA) that are oboslete based on the redundancy retention policy can be deleted automatically to free space.

D. The RMAN SHOW ALL command displays only settings with nondefault values.

E. A target database\’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always synchronized automatically with the RMAN catalog.

F. The V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modified.

G. A DBA must specify either a redundancy retention policy or a recovery window retention policy.

Correct Answer: ABF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books? id=pUEkAAAAQBAJandpg=PA114andlpg=PA114anddq=V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modifiedandsource=blandots=fhC9A7ULeXandsig=ACfU3U2cGhTjmAOpCZhvlL5R4j6ixLRAwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjJzfWmtnoAhXT8eAKHQ9uBG8Q6AEwAHoECAwQJg#v=onepageandq=V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION% 20view% 20displays only settings with values that have been% 20modifiedandf=false


Question 14:

Which three are true about Optimizer Statistics Advisor? (Choose three.)

A. It can be run only manually.

B. It is part of the DBMS_ADVISOR package.

C. It can recommend changes to improve the statistics gathering process.

D. It always analyzes all schemas in the database.

E. It runs automatically every night by default.

F. It is part of the DBMS_STATS package.

Correct Answer: CDF

Section: (none)

Reference: https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/optimizer-statistics-advisor-12cr2


Question 15:

You issued this command:

RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY FILES;

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. All Oracle recovery files not in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

B. All non-Oracle files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

C. All Oracle recovery files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

D. All Oracle recovery files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) are backed up.

E. These backups can be written to disk or SBT.

Correct Answer: BE

Section: (none)


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Question 1:

Which two are functional interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: http://tutorials.jenkov.com/java-functional-programming/functional-interfaces.html


Question 2:

Given these two classes:

And given this fragment:

Which describes the fragment?

A. It throws IllegalMonitorStateException.

B. It is subject to deadlock.

C. It is subject to livelock.

D. The code does not compile.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Given:

Examine these requirements:

Eliminate code duplication.

Keep constant the number of methods other classes may implement from this interface.

Which method can be added to meet these requirements?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Given:

Which one is correct?

A. An IllegalThreadStateException is thrown at run time.

B. Three threads are created.

C. The compilation fails.

D. Four threads are created.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which code fragment does a service use to load the service provider with a Print interface?

A. private Print print = com.service.Provider.getInstance();

B. private java.util.ServiceLoader loader = ServiceLoader.load(Print.class);

C. private java.util.ServiceLoader loader = new java.util.ServiceLoader();

D. private Print print = new com.service.Provider.PrintImpl();

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/?java/util/ServiceLoader.html


Question 6:

Examine these module declarations: Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The ServiceProvider module is the only module that, at run time, can provide the com.example.api API.

B. The placement of the com.example.api API in a separate module, ServiceAPI, makes it easy to install multiple provider modules.

C. The Consumer module should require the ServiceProvider module.

D. The ServiceProvider module should export the com.myimpl package.

E. The ServiceProvider module does not know the identity of a module (such as Consumer) that uses the com.example.api API.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

Given:

What is the output?

A. null

B. A NoSuchElementException is thrown at run time.

C. Duke

D. A NullPointerException is thrown at run time.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Assume ds is a DataSource and the EMP table is defined appropriately.

What does executing this code fragment do?

A. inserts two rows (101, \’SMITH\’, \’HR\’) and (102, \’JONES\’, NULL)

B. inserts two rows (101, \’SMITH\’, \’HR\’) and (102, \’JONES\’, \’HR\’)

C. inserts one row (101, \’SMITH\’, \’HR\’)

D. throws a SQLException

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Given:

Which statement on line 1 enables this code to compile?

A. Function f = n -> n * 2;

B. Function f = n -> n * 2;

C. Function f = n -> n * 2;

D. Function f = n -> n * 2;

E. Function f = n -> n * 2;

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Given:

var fruits = List.of(“apple”, “orange”, “banana”, “lemon”);

You want to examine the first element that contains the character n.

Which statement will accomplish this?

A. String result = fruits.stream().filter(f -> f.contains(“n”)).findAny();

B. fruits.stream().filter(f -> f.contains(“n”)).forEachOrdered(System.out::print);

C. Optional result = fruits.stream().filter(f -> f.contains(“n”)).findFirst ();

D. Optional result = fruits.stream().anyMatch(f -> f.contains(“n”));

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Given:

What is required to make the Foo class thread safe?

A. No change is required.

B. Make the declaration of lock static.

C. Replace the lock constructor call with new ReentrantLock (true).

D. Move the declaration of lock inside the foo method.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/55134811/how-to-make-java-class-thread-safe


Question 12:

Given:

var data = new ArrayList();

data.add(“Peter”);

data.add(30);

data.add(“Market Road”);

data.set(1, 25);

data.remove(2);

data.set(3, 1000L);

System.out.print(data);

What is the output?

A. [Market Road, 1000]

B. [Peter, 30, Market Road]

C. [Peter, 25, null, 1000]

D. An exception is thrown at run time.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which code fragment prints 100 random numbers?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.javacodegeeks.com/2014/01/java-util-random-in-java-8.html


Question 14:

You are working on a functional bug in a tool used by your development organization. In your investigation, you find that the tool is executed with a security policy file containing this grant.

What action should you take?

A. Nothing, because it is an internal tool and not exposed to the public.

B. Remove the grant because it is excessive.

C. Nothing, because it is not related to the bug you are investigating.

D. File a security bug against the tool referencing the excessive permission granted.

E. Nothing, because listing just the required permissions would be an ongoing maintenance challenge.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://wiki.sei.cmu.edu/confluence/display/java/ENV03-J. Do not grant dangerous combinations of permissions


Question 15:

Given an application with a main module that has this module-info.java file:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. A module providing an implementation of country.CountryDetails can be compiled and added without recompiling the main module.

B. A module providing an implementation of country.CountryDetails must have a requires main; directive in its module-info.java file.

C. An implementation of country.countryDetails can be added to the main module.

D. To compile without an error, the application must have at least one module in the module source path that provides an implementation of country.CountryDetails.

E. To run without an error, the application must have at least one module in the module path that provides an implementation of country.CountryDetails.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/49476559/java-9-error-not-in-a-module-on-the-module-source-path


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Question 1:

A custom section action can call what type of workflow?

A. System

B. Subflow

C. Synchronous

D. Asynchronous

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which statement is true about a trigger action workflow task?

A. It can be used to call a scheduled event.

B. It cannot be used to trigger a self transition action.

C. It cannot be used to trigger an action in the null state.

D. It can be used to perform an action on multiple records.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

What are two managed objects within the Administration Console?

A. Data Modeler

B. Agent Manager

C. Cache Manager

D. Report Manager

E. Event Scheduler

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

What is/are the number of navigation level(s) allowed for an item of type Quick link?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which two statements are true about System Geography?

A. There is no impact on data a user can access.

B. It is for reporting purposes only.

C. It is not related to the geography hierarchy.

D. It allows data to be filtered based on the user\’s geography.

E. It may be combined with System Organization to provide a dual filter of data the user can access.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 6:

What is the purpose of the special value $$today$$ in a field filter?

A. it will filter based upon the current date

B. it will filter based upon the last 24 hours

C. it will filter based upon the day of the week

D. it will filter based upon the date the query was created

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A business object has multiple forms, and on one of them a locator field needs to be set to Required. Which tool is used to accomplish this?

A. Form Builder

B. Data Modeler

C. Data Integrator

D. Workflow Builder

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which statement is true about the State Transition Family when adding a new business object (BO) to a module, and this new BO is not the base BO?

A. The BO automatically starts out with a blank state transition family.

B. The BO automatically starts out with a copy of the base BO\’s state transition family.

C. The BO automatically starts out with a copy of the state transition family from the BO that was modified last.

D. The BO automatically starts out with a copy of the state transition from the BO that was modified last that is within the same module.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

After making changes to a portal, what actions are required for the user to see the changes?

A. clear the browser cache

B. sign out and sign back in

C. bounce the application server

D. clear the application cache from the admin console

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which statement is true regarding an onChange event?

A. It cannot pop up another form.

B. It cannot pop up a query result.

C. It cannot trigger a state family action.

D. It cannot create a permanent association.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which tool is used to create a module?

A. Form Builder

B. Data Modeler

C. Portal Builder

D. Report Manager

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

When a retired workflow is added to an Object Migration package, what is the expected result when importing it to another environment?

A. It will be skipped on import.

B. It will be removed on upload.

C. It will be imported in a retired state.

D. It will be imported into whatever state the workflow exists in the target environment.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

When creating a new business object (BO), selecting the Show Single Tab option will cause what condition to be true?

A. Records created from this BO will be displayed on forms that only show a single tab.

B. Records created from this BO will be displayed by themselves in new tabs on existing forms.

C. Records created from this BO will be displayed by themselves in separate tabs on new forms.

D. Records created from this BO will be displayed on a new form, which is automatically generated for the BO.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

After publishing a business object, which file should be reviewed for possible errors and/or warnings during the publishing process?

A. error.log

B. server.log

C. security.log

D. systemTests.log

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Records have been created with a field called cstExeptionUsedLI, and some have a value of Days Away From Work. The client has decided they want the list updated with new values and to also remove from the list Days Away From Work.

How does this affect the record?

A. The record\’s list field will come up blank, the record should be updated again providing a value from the list.

B. The system will not allow the removal of Days Away From Work since there is a record that is using that value.

C. It does not affect the record; the record will continue to use the previous list values, and it can never use the new values for auditing purposes.

D. It does not affect the record; the record will still have Days Away From Work as its list field value, and it can also use the new values in the list.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

If a group of routers are running VRRP with a virtual router ID of 155, which MAC address will be used to respond to the ARP requests for the virtual IP?

A. 0000-5E00-0155

B. 0000-5E00-019B

C. 0001-5500-005E

D. 0001-9B00-005E

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

When configuring a PBR route-map, what are the configurable “SET” options?

A. set ip source, set ip next-hop, and set ip default next-hop

B. set ip next-hop, set ip source, and set ip precedence

C. set ip next-hop, set ip default next-hop, and set ip precedence

D. set ip source, set ip default next-hop and set ip precedence

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

When setting up VoIP, you decide that you want to use LLDP. LLDP is enabled by default and LLDP Transmit Management Information and Notification modes are enabled.

What additional steps need to be performed?

A. Enable ISDP and enable LLDP-MED confignotification

B. Disable ISDP and enable LLDP-MED confignotification

C. Enable ISDP and disable LLDP-MED confignotification

D. Disable ISDP and disable LLDP-MED confignotification

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

After setting up the VoIP configuration, a network administrator issues the following commands with the results shown:

console# show voice vlan Administrative Mode………………………Enable

console# show voice vlan it gi 1/0/2

Interface………………………………….Gi1/0/2

Voice VLAN Interface Mode……………Enabled

Voice VLAN ID………………………….10

Voice VLAN COS Overwrite……………False

Voice VLAN DSCP Value……………….46

Voice VLAN Port Status…………………Enabled

Voice VLAN Authentication…………….Disabled

Based on this information, what is the Layer 3 QoS value?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 46

D. Gi1/0/2

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is the IP protocol number, in decimal, assigned by IANA for VRRP?

A. 25

B. 112

C. 443

D. 1443

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the interaction between CDP, ISDP, and LLDP when communicating configuration information from a Dell EMC Campus networking switch to a Cisco VoIP phone?

A. N-Series switches can be configured to use LLDP or CDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices

B. N-Series switches can be configured to use only CDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices

C. N-Series switches can be configured to use ISDP or CDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices

D. N-Series switches can be configured to use ISDP or LLDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Switch-1(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/1 Switch-1(config)# switchport mode access Switch-1(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 10, 20 Switch-1(config)# Switch-1(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/3 Switch-1(config)# switchport mode access Switch-1(config)# switchport access vlan 10

Switch-2(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/2 Switch-2(config)# switchport mode trunk Switch-2(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 10, 20 Switch-2(config)# Switch-2(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/6 Switch-2(config)# switchport mode access Switch-2(config)# switchport access vlan 20

A network administrator is troubleshooting why Host 1 cannot communicate with Host 2.

Based on the switch output shown in the exhibit, what is the reason for the communication issue?

A. Port Te1/0/1 on Switch-1 is configured incorrectly

B. Port Te1/0/2 on Switch-2 is configured incorrectly

C. Port Te1/0/3 for Host 1 is configured incorrectly on Switch-1

D. Port Te1/0/6 for Host 2 is configured incorrectly on Switch-2

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What are key features of the Dell EMC N4064 or N4064F switches?

A. Up to 640 Gbps switch fabric capacity and hot swap expansion module support for dual QSFP (8 x 10GbE)

B. Up to 1.0 Tbps switch fabric capacity and up to 48-line rate 10GbE ports per switch

C. Up to 1.2 Tbps switch fabric capacity and up to 64-line rate 10GbE ports per switch

D. Up to 48-line rate 10GbE ports per switch and hot swap expansion module support for dual QSFP (8 x 10GbE)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://i.dell.com/sites/csdocuments/Shared-Content_data-Sheets_Documents/en/aa/Dell_Networking_N4000_Series_SpecSheet.pdf


Question 9:

The exhibit represents a topology with all Dell EMC N4000 Series switches with RSTP enabled. In addition, the switches are using the default configuration on all ports and protocols. Which port number will be blocked by spanning tree?

A. Te 1/0/3

B. Te 1/0/4

C. Te 1/0/5

D. Te 1/0/6

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has created an ACL to block broadcast traffic to their server on port Gi1/0/1. Why is the ACL not functioning as desired?

A. ACL is not applied in the correct direction

B. ACLs do not support broadcast traffic

C. Destination address mask is incorrect

D. Destination IP address is incorrect

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A user\’s workstation is connected to an IP phone that is connected to a Dell EMC N-Series switch. Which type of traffic is typically tagged or untagged?

A. Data = tagged, Voice = untagged

B. Data = untagged, Voice = untagged

C. Data = tagged, Voice = tagged

D. Data = untagged, Voice = tagged

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/article/en-us/how12385/how-to-enable-the-voice-vlan-feature-on-dell-emc-networking-n-series-switches?lang=en


Question 12:

Which interface on a Dell EMC N-Series switch provides the most security for management?

A. VLAN

B. Ethernet

C. Loopback

D. Out-of-band

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

When configuring a Dell EMC N-Series switch for VoIP and QoS, what is one QoS setting that ensures voice traffic is prioritized in the presence of other network traffic?

A. LLDP protocol setting

B. ISDP protocol setting

C. Classification setting

D. VLAN spanning tree setting

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You are tasked with deploying a single Dell EMC N-Series switch with a 2-port port-channel to uplink to an existing upstream switch. The following reflects the upstream switch configuration:

N4032F#show running-config interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/5 channel-group 1 mode on N4032F#show running-config interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/6 channel-group 1 mode on

Which type of port-channel should be configured to successfully uplink?

A. Active

B. MLAG

C. Static

D. Passive

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A switch interface has been properly configured for static port security with one defined allowable MAC address. However, when the network administrator plugs a switch into that port, multiple devices are still allowed access to the network. Where must port security also be enabled to have an effect?

A. Enabled globally on the switch

B. Enabled on all attached devices

C. Enabled on all switches in the network

D. Enabled on all interfaces of the switch

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/article/en-us/how10392/how-to-configure-mac-based-port-security-on-dell-n2000-n3000-and-n4000-series-switches?lang=en


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