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Question 1:

Which is true for the relationship between provisioning policies, services, and roles?

A. A provisioning policy governs only services that are associated the same business unit or sub tree of the business unit with which the policy is associated. A role referenced in the provisioning policy must be associated the same business unit or sub tree of the business unit with which the policy is associated.

B. A provisioning policy governs only services that are associated the same business unit or sub tree of the business unit with which the policy is associated. A role referenced in the provisioning policy can be anywhere in the tree of the organization.

C. A provisioning policy governs services that are anywhere in the tree of the organization. A role referenced in the provisioning policy must be associated the same business unit or sub tree of the business unit with which the policy is associated.

D. A provisioning policy governs services that are anywhere in the tree of the organization. A role referenced in the provisioning policy can be anywhere in the tree of the organization.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSRMWJ_6.0.0.2/com.ibm.isim.doc_6.0.0.2/planning/cpt/ cpt_ic_plan_orgtree_scope_polprov.htm


Question 2:

Which actions are best practice for securing IBM Security Identity Manager LDAP data?

A. Disabling anonymous read access, enabling SSL communication only

B. Allow only read access to IBM Security Identity Manager LDAP

C. Run the IBM Security Identity Manager server as non-root user

D. Enabled WebSphere global security

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSRMWJ_6.0.0.2/com.ibm.isim.doc_6.0.0.2/securing/cpt/ cpt_ic_security_ssl_recommend.htm?lang=en (expand security, and click secure environment practices, see table 1)


Question 3:

When gathering requirements for setting the Password policy which two tasks should be identified for system-wide password settings? (Choose two)

A. Synchronizing password changes for all sponsor accounts

B. Enabling forgotten password authentication

C. Enabling forgotten password date rule

D. Creating a password strength rule

E. Creating a password notation rule

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

What does IdentityPolicy.getNextCount(baseld) in an identity policy return, where baseId is the value of the base user ID? (Choose two)

A. It returns the iteration number that the identity policy is running to identify the number of times a user name had to be generated before a unique one could be found.

B. It returns the next user ID that is generated according to the rules in the Identity policy but does not check for uniqueness.

C. It returns a number that can be appended to the end of the user name to make that user name unique.

D. It returns the number of conflicts the passed user name has against all services configured in ISIM.

E. It returns-1 if the user name is already unique.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

When gathering requirements for email notifications, which mail protocol is used to send email notifications in the IBM Security Identity Manager environment?

A. SMTP protocol

B. IMAP protocol

C. UDP protocol

D. TCP protocol

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

To configure logging to diagnose an issue with the WinAD64 adapter, which of the following must be performed using AgentCfg?

A. Enable activity logging

B. Enable thread logging

C. Enable detail logging

D. Enable base logging

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

When considering forms associated with Service, Accounts and Service Group categories, what two forms can be customized?

A. The Account form for accounts associated with a specific service type can be customized.

B. The Service Group form for groups associated with a specific service can be customized.

C. The Account form for accounts associated with a specific service can be customized

D. The Service Group form for a specific group value can be customized.

E. The Service form for a specific service can be customized.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 8:

Which recertification policy options need to be considered when designing a recertification policy?

A. Who approves the recertification request what action to take when recertification rejected, who to send rejection email to

B. Who rejects the recertification request, who approves the recertification request, who to send rejection email to

C. Who approves the recertification request, account owner email notification, manager email notification

D. Who approves the recertification request, what approval action to take, who to send approval email to

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Password synchronization provides change to accounts of which ownership type?

A. Device

B. System

C. Individual

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSRMWJ_6.0.0.2/com.ibm.isim.doc_6.0.0.2/configuring/ cpt/ cpt_ic_ownershiptypes_oview.htm


Question 10:

In a web SSO environment, what is a valid step in the deployment plan to achieve integration between ISIM and web SSO product for implementing Forgotten Password functionality?

A. ISIM\’s Forgotten Password function must get the challenge questions from the web SSO product and change ISIM service\’s password.

B. ISIM\’s Forgotten Password function will automatically bounce the request to web SSO product\’s Forgotten Password function.

C. The web SSO product\’s Forgotten Password function can get the challenge questions from ISIM.

D. The web SSO\’s forgotten password function cannot be used – only ISIM\’s forgotten password function must be used.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

The client\’s IBM Security Identity Manager (ISIM) production environment consists of a two node IBM Websphere Application cluster. Server #1 has the Websphere Deployment Manager installed as well as one of the cluster nodes. Server #2 in the cluster just has the node installed. If a process monitor is being configured on Server #1 how many Java processes are there related just to Websphere?

A. 4 – Deployment Manager process, Node process, Application Server process, Messaging Server process

B. 1- Deployment Manager and Node processes run under a single Java process

C. 3 – Deployment Manager process, Node process, Application Server process

D. 2 – Deployment Manager process and Node process

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

When gathering requirements for a Roles Administration design, which would static and dynamic roles be associated?

A. In the design of the Organization tree

B. In the design of Password policies

C. In the design of a LDAP Adapter

D. In the design of a work flow

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

What is the Linux path and command to verify that ISIM v6.0 is currently running?

A. WAS_PROFILE_HOME/bin/serverStatus.sh -all

B. WAS_PROFILE_HOME/var/status.sh

C. ISIM_HOME/var/serverStatus.sh -all

D. ISIM_HOME/bin/serverStatus.sh-all

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSRMWJ_6.0.0.2/com.ibm.isim.doc_6.0.0.2/installing/tsk / tsk_ic_ins_ver_wasruns.htm?lang=en


Question 14:

The criteria to setup indexes for a Directory Server attribute is based on what?

A. The frequency of replicating objects containing the attribute to a replica.

B. The frequency of reading and writing information to / from the attribute.

C. The frequency of writing information to the attribute.

D. The frequency of reading information based on the attribute\’s contents.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which two of the following are relevant to password retrieval by a user using a URL?

A. enrole.generic.randomizer should be set to true for generation of random URL for each password retrieval request.

B. enrole.password.retrievalURL should be set to the value of the URL where the user can retrieve the password.

C. The shared secret attribute of the Person object should be populated by the user beforehand.

D. enrole.workflow.notifyPassword should be set to false.

E. enrole.password.retrieval should be set to true.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://publib.boulder.ibm.com/tividd/td/ITIM/SC32-1152- 02/en_US/PDF/im451_enduser.pdf (page 15, retrieving new passwords)


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Question 1:

Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?

A. Process owner

B. Change manager

C. Service manager

D. Process practitioner

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined?

A. Service design: Design the processes

B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings

C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment

D. Service operation: IT operations management

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt

C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?

A. To identify patterns of business activity

B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction

C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services

D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

A. Change proposal

B. Change policy

C. Service request

D. Risk register

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?

A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities

B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA

C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA

D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?

A. Service level management

B. Service catalogue management

C. Demand management

D. Service transition

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?

1.

Those planned to be delivered

2.

Those being delivered

3.

Those that have been withdrawn from service

A. 1 and 3 only

B. All of the above

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A. The value of a service

B. Governance

C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)

D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not

B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset

C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not

D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

A. Configuration baseline

B. Project baseline

C. Change baseline

D. Asset baseline

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services

C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening

D. To detect security events and make sense of them

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Continual service improvement

B. Service strategy

C. Service design

D. Service transition

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?

A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident

B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill

C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction

D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which process will regularly anal0yse incident data to identify discernible trends?

A. Service level management

B. Problem management

C. C0hange management

D. Event management

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Given:

IntStream stream = IntStream.of (1,2,3);

IntFunction inFu= x -> y -> x*y; //line n1

IntStream newStream = stream.map(inFu.apply(10)); //line n2

newStream.forEach(System.output::print);

Which modification enables the code fragment to compile?

A. Replace line n1 with: IntFunction inFu = x -> y -> x*y;

B. Replace line n1 with: IntFunction inFu = x -> y -> x*y;

C. Replace line n1 with: BiFunction inFu = x -> y -> x*y;

D. Replace line n2 with: IntStream newStream = stream.map(inFu.applyAsInt (10));

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Given the code fragment:

List values = Arrays.asList (1, 2, 3);

values.stream ()

.map(n -> n*2) //line n1

.peek(System.out::print) //line n2

.count();

What is the result?

A. 246

B. The code produces no output.

C. A compilation error occurs at line n1.

D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Given the code fragment:

public class Foo {

public static void main (String [ ] args) {

Map unsortMap = new HashMap ( );

unsortMap.put (10, “z”);

unsortMap.put (5, “b”);

unsortMap.put (1, “d”);

unsortMap.put (7, “e”);

unsortMap.put (50, “j”);

Map treeMap = new TreeMap (new

Comparator ( ) {

@Override public int compare (Integer o1, Integer o2) {return o2.compareTo

(o1); } } );

treeMap.putAll (unsortMap);

for (Map.Entry entry : treeMap.entrySet () ) {

System.out.print (entry.getValue () ” “);

}

}

}

What is the result?

A. A compilation error occurs.

B. d b e z j

C. j z e b d

D. z b d e j

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which two reasons should you use interfaces instead of abstract classes? (Choose two.)

A. You expect that classes that implement your interfaces have many common methods or fields, or require access modifiers other than public.

B. You expect that unrelated classes would implement your interfaces.

C. You want to share code among several closely related classes.

D. You want to declare non-static on non-final fields.

E. You want to take advantage of multiple inheritance of type.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://books.google.com.br/books?id=nS2tBQAAQBAJandpg=PT235andlpg=PT235anddq=You want to share code among several closely related classes.andsource=blandots=3oYOu2XXNandsig=uVFS0KB15BqyEgghXnnjJSUdcrEandhl=pt-BRandsa=Xandved=0ahUKEwjlsKen6baAhVEhZAKHeiEDTgQ6AEIMDAB#v=onepageandq=You want to share code among several closely related% 20classes.andf=false


Question 5:

Given:

public class Counter {

public static void main (String[ ] args) {

int a = 10;

int b = -1;

assert (b >=1) : “Invalid Denominator”;

int = a / b;

System.out.println (c);

}

}

What is the result of running the code with the -ea option?

A. -10

B. 0

C. An AssertionError is thrown.

D. A compilation error occurs.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Given:

class Bird {

public void fly () { System.out.print(“Can fly”); }

}

class Penguin extends Bird {

public void fly () { System.out.print(“Cannot fly”); }

}

and the code fragment:

class Birdie {

public static void main (String [ ] args) {

fly( ( ) -> new Bird ( ));

fly (Penguin : : new);

}

/* line n1 */

}

Which code fragment, when inserted at line n1, enables the Birdie class to compile?

A. static void fly (Consumer bird) { bird :: fly (); } {

B. static void fly (Consumer bird) bird.accept( ) fly (); } {

C. static void fly (Supplier bird) bird.get( ) fly (); } {

D. static void fly (Supplier bird) LOST

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Given:

1.

abstract class Shape {

2.

Shape ( ) { System.out.println (“Shape”); }

3.

protected void area ( ) { System.out.println (“Shape”); }

4.

}

5.

6.

class Square extends Shape {

7.

int side;

8.

Square int side {

9.

/* insert code here */

10.

this.side = side;

11.

}

12.

public void area ( ) { System.out.println (“Square”); }

13.

}

14.

class Rectangle extends Square {

15.

int len, br;

16.

Rectangle (int x, int y) {

17.

/* insert code here */

18.

len = x, br = y;

19.

}

20.

void area ( ) { System.out.println (“Rectangle”); }

21.

}

Which two modifications enable the code to compile? (Choose two.)

A. At line 1, remove abstract

B. At line 9, insert super ( );

C. At line 12, remove public

D. At line 17, insert super (x);

E. At line 17, insert super (); super.side = x;

F. At line 20, use public void area ( ) {

Correct Answer: DF


Question 8:

Given:

class Sum extends RecursiveAction { //line n1

static final int THRESHOLD_SIZE = 3;

int stIndex, lstIndex;

int [ ] data;

public Sum (int [ ]data, int start, int end) {

this.data = data;

this stIndex = start;

this. lstIndex = end;

}

protected void compute ( ) {

int sum = 0;

if (lstIndex ?stIndex<;= THRESHOLD_SIZE) {

for (int i = stIndex; i < lstIndex; i ) {

sum = data [i];

}

System.out.println(sum);

} else {

new Sum (data, stIndex THRESHOLD_SIZE, lstIndex).fork( );

new Sum (data, stIndex,

Math.min (lstIndex, stIndex THRESHOLD_SIZE)

).compute ();

}

}

}

and the code fragment:

ForkJoinPool fjPool = new ForkJoinPool ( );

int data [ ] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

fjPool.invoke (new Sum (data, 0, data.length));

and given that the sum of all integers from 1 to 10 is 55.

Which statement is true?

A. The program prints several values that total 55.

B. The program prints 55.

C. A compilation error occurs at line n1.

D. The program prints several values whose sum exceeds 55.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Given the content of Operator.java, EngineOperator.java, and Engine.java files: and the code fragment:

What is the result?

A. The Engine.java file fails to compile.

B. The EngineOperator.java file fails to compile.

C. The Operator.java file fails to compile.

D. ON OFF

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Given the code fragment:

Stream<List> iStr= Stream.of (

Arrays.asList (“1”, “John”),

Arrays.asList (“2”, null)0;

Stream< nInSt = iStr.flatMapToInt ((x) -> x.stream ());

nInSt.forEach (System.out :: print);

What is the result?

A. 1John2null

B. 12

C. A NullPointerException is thrown at run time.

D. A compilation error occurs.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Given the code fragment:

Path file = Paths.get (“courses.txt”); // line n1

Assume the courses.txt is accessible.

Which code fragment can be inserted at line n1 to enable the code to print the content of the courses.txt file?

A. List fc = Files.list(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

B. Stream fc = Files.readAllLines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

C. List fc = readAllLines(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

D. Stream fc = Files.lines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Given the code fragment:

public void recDelete (String dirName) throws IOException {

File [ ] listOfFiles = new File (dirName) .listFiles();

if (listOfFiles ! = null andand listOfFiles.length >0) {

for (File aFile : listOfFiles) {

if (aFile.isDirectory ()) {

recDelete (aFile.getAbsolutePath ());

} else {

if (aFile.getName ().endsWith (“.class”))

aFile.delete ();

}

}

}

}

Assume that Projects contains subdirectories that contain .class files and is passed as an argument to the

recDelete () method when it is invoked.

What is the result?

A. The method deletes all the .class files in the Projects directory and its subdirectories.

B. The method deletes the .class files of the Projects directory only.

C. The method executes and does not make any changes to the Projects directory.

D. The method throws an IOException.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Given the code fragments:

4.

void doStuff() throws ArithmeticException, NumberFormatException, Exception {

5.

if (Math.random() >-1 throw new Exception (“Try again”);

6.

}

and

24.

try {

25.

doStuff ( ):

26.

} catch (ArithmeticException | NumberFormatException | Exception e) {

27.

System.out.println (e.getMessage()); }

28.

catch (Exception e) {

29.

System.out.println (e.getMessage()); }

30.

}

Which modification enables the code to print Try again?

A. Comment the lines 28, 29 and 30.

B. Replace line 26 with: } catch (Exception | ArithmeticException | NumberFormatException e) {

C. Replace line 26 with: } catch (ArithmeticException | NumberFormatException e) {

D. Replace line 27 with: throw e;

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Given the definition of the Country class:

public class country {

public enum Continent {ASIA, EUROPE}

String name;

Continent region;

public Country (String na, Continent reg) {

name = na, region = reg;

}

public String getName () {return name;}

public Continent getRegion () {return region;}

}

and the code fragment:

List couList = Arrays.asList (

new Country (“Japan”, Country.Continent.ASIA),

new Country (“Italy”, Country.Continent.EUROPE),

new Country (“Germany”, Country.Continent.EUROPE));

Map<Country.Continent, List> regionNames = couList.stream ()

.collect(Collectors.groupingBy (Country ::getRegion,

Collectors.mapping(Country::getName, Collectors.toList()))));

System.out.println(regionNames);

A. {EUROPE = [Italy, Germany], ASIA = [Japan]}

B. {ASIA = [Japan], EUROPE = [Italy, Germany]}

C. {EUROPE = [Germany, Italy], ASIA = [Japan]}

D. {EUROPE = [Germany], EUROPE = [Italy], ASIA = [Japan]}

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Given the code fragment:

Map books = new TreeMap();

books.put (1007, “A”);

books.put (1002, “C”);

books.put (1001, “B”);

books.put (1003, “B”);

System.out.println (books);

What is the result?

A. {1007 = A, 1002 = C, 1001 = B, 1003 = B}

B. {1001 = B, 1002 = C, 1003 = B, 1007 = A}

C. {1002 = C, 1003 = B, 1007 = A}

D. {1007 = A, 1001 = B, 1003 = B, 1002 = C}

Correct Answer: B

Reference: TreeMap inherits SortedMap and automatically sorts the element\’s key


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Question 1:

Which of the following will be added to a newly created charge plan?

A. Macro

B. Offer

C. Technical ID

D. Charge

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which assignment block do you use to visualize the distribution steps assigned to a contract?

A. System Status

B. Transaction history

C. Fulfillment status

D. Subscription-specific data

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the following process is triggered by an allowance group definition?

A. Activation of allowance with contract activation

B. Creation of allowance with subscription contract creation

C. Expiration of allowance with contract cancellation

D. Change of allowance with contract change

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What does a chargeable item class define?

A. The link to an assigned service provider

B. The default and user properties of a service

C. The chargeable item dependency

D. The chargeable item sequence

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which are the main branches in the decision tree of a charge?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this questions.

A. Price plan

B. Charging plan

C. Charge plan

D. Rating plan

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

Which of the following SAP Convergent charging objects are only displayed in, but not replicated to, SAP S/4HANA Service: Subscription Order management (SOM)?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this questions.

A. Mapping Table

B. Charge plan

C. Technical Resource

D. Product

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

Which process triggers the creation of discount base items?

A. Billing of a billable item

B. Creation of an invoicing documents

C. Rating of a consumption item

D. Creation of a charged item

E. None

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which master data objects are replicated from SAP S/4HANA to SAP Convergent Charging?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this questions.

A. Contract account

B. Business partner

C. Contract person

D. Product

Correct Answer: AB


Question 9:

Which business partner role is required to trigger the business partner replication from SAPS/4HANA top SAP Convergent Charging?

A. Service Recipient

B. Sold-to-Party

C. FI Customer

D. Contract partner

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which indicator must be set in the product to assign a product model?

A. Configurable flag

B. Base category

C. Item category group

D. Service ID

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which documentation describes the authorization roles of SAP Convergent Charging?

A. Application help

B. Product availability matrix

C. Security guideline

D. Installation guideline

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which fields in the billable item attributes are grouped by default?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this questions.

A. Business partner

B. Contract account

C. Billing subprocess

D. Billing item type

E. Billing process

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 13:

Which configuration objects determine the data entry fields that are available on a business partner?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this questions.

A. Business partner number

B. Business partner group

C. Business partner type

D. Business partner category

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

Which follow-up objects could be created by a solution quotation object?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this questions.

A. Service Contract

B. Solution Contract

C. Sales Order

D. Subscription Contract

E. Sales Contract

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 15:

Which customizing object must you activate to define individual discount that are calculated during invoice processing?

A. Invoice function

B. Invoice process

C. Invoice category

D. Invoice type

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which two application servers are supported for CLM? (Choose two.)

A. Oracle WebLogic

B. WebSphere Application Server

C. Oracle GlassFish

D. Apache Tomcat

E. Microsoft IIS

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

Which database servers are supported by the Jazz Team Server?

A. IBM DB2, Derby, MySQL, Microsoft SQL Server

B. Microsoft SQL Server, Microsoft Access, Derby, IBM DB2

C. Derby, IBM DB2, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle Database

D. IBM DB2, Software AG Adabas, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle Database

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

What are two valid usage scenarios for integrating Rational Method Composer with RTC v4.0.1? (Choose two.)

A. publishing a Work Breakdown Structure Workflow diagram from RMC as process guidance attached to RTC WI

B. leveraging RTC SCM and Work Items for configuration and changing management of process assets

C. publishing an RMC-generated web application that includes a published process configuration with advanced search and RSS servlet components

D. creating roles and tasks in RTC directly from RMC

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

What are two reasons that sharing a common Jazz Team Server repository across Jazz products is recommended? (Choose two.)

A. code development enabled in a shared repository

B. ability to report using Rational Insight

C. common user and license administration

D. reporting through the RRDI reporting server

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

What are two capabilities provided by the Lifecycle Project Administration (LPA) application?

A. Create a lifecycle project from a predefined template

B. Configure email setting for notification when a work item is updated

C. Import process template that can be used for lifecycle projects

D. Define members to all of the project areas that belong to a lifecycle project

E. Register applications to add to the Jazz Team Server environment

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

When performing a design review in Rational Software Architect Design Manager, a reviewer can add and associate comments with _____. (Choose three.)

A. any diagrams contained in the solution model

B. any components contained in the solution model

C. related RTC work items reflecting non-functional requirements

D. the work item review/approval lifecycle in place for the project

E. the packages and package hierarchy used in the model

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 7:

What is a characteristic of the Stakeholder license type in RTC?

A. read and write access to Reports as well as the ability to author BIRT reports

B. read and write access to Planning Capabilities

C. read and write access to Change Management

D. read and write access to Software Configuration Management

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which two application servers are supported for CLM? (Choose two.)

A. Oracle WebLogic

B. WebSphere Application Server

C. Oracle GlassFish

D. Apache Tomcat

E. Microsoft IIS

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

Which statement is true about the Lifecycle Project Administration (LPA) installation?

A. LPA is available only when an LDAP is not being used.

B. LPA is an application and must be registered during CLM setup.

C. LPA is installed only if you activate the LPA license.

D. LPA must be installed on a different server than the Jazz Team Server.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which two CLM 4.0.1 products connect to the Rational Focal point v6.5.2? (Choose two.)

A. Rational Team Concert

B. Rational Quality Manager

C. Rational Requirements Composer

D. Rational Design Manager

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

To start the RQM command-line adapter, what must you know? (Choose three.)

A. the jazz repository URL

B. a user ID with the appropriate licenses to log in as an adapter

C. the name of the project area, if it is not the default RQM project area

D. the path to the batch file or shell script to be executed

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

What are the five ALM imperatives?

A. Lifecycle Traceability, Mean Time to Failure, In-context Collaboration, Development Intelligence, Continuous Process Improvement

B. In-context Collaboration, Working Software, Real-time Planning, Lifecycle Traceability, Continuous Process Improvement

C. Real-time Planning, Lifecycle Traceability, In-context Collaboration, Development Intelligence, Continuous Process Improvement

D. Continuous Process Improvement, Secure by Design, Real-time Planning, Lifecycle Traceability, Development Intelligence

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which versions of RAD and Eclipse are compatible with RTC 4.0.1? (Choose two.)

A. RAD v8.5 onwards

B. RAD v7.5 onwards

C. Eclipse v3.6 onwards

D. Eclipse v3.4 onwards

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

In RQM version 3, what can have execution records? (Choose two.)

A. Test Plan

B. Test Case

C. Test Suite

D. Test Script

Correct Answer: BC


Question 15:

Which two applications are included in a CLM installation by default? (Choose two.)

A. Rational Team Concert

B. Rational Insight

C. Rational Design Manager

D. Rational Software Architect

E. Rational Quality Manager

F. Rational Asset Manager

Correct Answer: AE


Read More →

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Question 1:

You need to recommend a network configuration for the newly deployed Hyper-V hosts used by Customer1.

On which network adapter should you recommend performing each configuration? To answer, select the appropriate network adapter for each configuration in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

You need to recommend a configuration for the CA extensions of Northwind Traders that meets the certificate revocation requirement of Customer1. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate prefix of the target location for the each extension settings in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You prepare the forest to support Workplace Join and you enable the Device Registration Service (DRS) on Server1. You need to ensure that Workplace Join meets the following requirements:

Application access must be based on device claims.

Users who attempt to join their device to the workplace through Server2 must be prevented from locking out their Active Directory account due to invalid credentials.

Which cmdlet should you run to achieve each requirement? To answer, select the cmdlet for each requirement in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) is deployed to the domain. In VMM, you create a host group named HostGroup1. You add a 16-node Hyper-V failover cluster to HostGroup1. From Windows PowerShell, you run the following commands:

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

Your company has four offices. The offices are located in Montreal, Seattle, New York, and Miami.

Users access all of the web-based resources by using web proxy servers. The IP addresses of the web proxies at each office are configured as shown in the following table.

The connections to the web proxies are balanced by using round-robin DNS.

The company plans to deploy a new application. The new application has a farm of frontend web servers that connect to a back-end application server. When a session to a web server is established,

the web server stores data until the session closes. Once the session closes, the data is sent to the application server.

You need to ensure that the incoming sessions to the web server farm are distributed among the web servers. The solution must ensure that if a web server fails, the users are NOT directed to the failed

server.

How should you configure the port rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains two nodes named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows

Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.

You plan to create two virtual machines that will run an application named App1. App1 will store data on a virtual hard drive named App1data.vhdx. App1data.vhdx will be shared by both virtual

machines.

The network contains the following shared folders:

An SMB file share named Share1 that is hosted on a Scale-Out File Server.

An SMB file share named Share2 that is hosted on a standalone file server.

An NFS share named Share3 that is hosted on a standalone file server.

You need to ensure that both virtual machines can use App1data.vhdx simultaneously. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate configurations in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster named Cluster1 that contains four nodes.

Cluster1 hosts a web application named App1. The session state information of App1 is stored in a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.

The network contains four subnets.

You discover that all of the users from a subnet named Subnet1 always connect to the same NLB node.

You need to ensure that all of the users from each of the subnets connect equally across all of the nodes in Cluster1.

What should you modify from the port settings?

To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 8:

You need to implement VM-SQLclusterl.contoso.com.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 9:

You need to recommend a monitoring solution for Proseware.

Which three actions should you recommend performing in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 10:

You need to prepare for the migration of virtual machines across the Hyper-V hosts of Customer2.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains four Hyper-V hosts. Cluster1 hosts 20 virtual machines.

You deploy a new failover cluster named Cluster2.

You plan to replicate the virtual machines from Cluster1 to Cluster2.

You need to recommend which actions must be performed on Cluster2 for the planned deployment.

Which three actions should you recommend?

To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 12:

Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are members of a failover cluster.

The network contains a Storage Area Network (SAN) that has a LUN named LUN1. LUN1 is connected to a 12-TB disk on the SAN.

You plan to host three new virtual machines on the failover cluster. Each virtual machine will store up to 4 TB of data on a single disk. The virtual machines will be backed up from the hosts by using the

Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS).

You need to ensure that Server1 and Server2 can store the new virtual machines on the SAN.

Which three actions should you perform?

To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012.

Server1 has the iSCSI Target Server role service installed and is configured to have five iSCSI virtual disks.

You install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature on Server2.

From the MPIO snap-in, you add support for iSCSI devices.

You need to ensure that Server2 can connect to the five iSCSI disks. The solution must ensure that Server2 uses MPIO to access the disks.

Which three actions should you perform?

To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

You plan to delegate the management of virtual machines to five groups by using Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).

The network contains 20 Hyper-V hosts in a host group named HostGroup1. You identify the requirements for each group as shown in the following table.

You need to identify which user role must be assigned to each group.

Which user roles should you identify?

To answer, drag the appropriate user role to the correct group in the answer area. Each user role may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar

between panes or scroll to view content.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 15:

You need to recommend a solution that manages the security events. The solution must meet the technical requirements. Which configuration should you include in the recommendation?

A. Object access auditing by using a Group Policy object (GPO)

B. Event rules by using System Center 2012 Operations Manager

C. Event forwarding by using Event Viewer

D. Audit Collection Services (ACS) by using System Center 2012

Correct Answer: D


Read More →

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Question 1:

In an application, three email addresses (work, home, and other) can be captured for a customer. You use .Email (work) to refer to the work email address. What type of property is used to capture the email addresses?

A. Page

B. Value group

C. Value list

D. Page group

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which requirement is satisfied by configuring a service level agreement?

A. Users are notified when they receive an assignment.

B. Transaction dispute cases are considered more urgent than address change cases.

C. Requests from customers with elite status go to a dedicated work group.

D. A transaction review is completed within 24 hours.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

An application allows bank customers to apply for a credit card. During the process of applying for the credit card, customers can elect to transfer a balance to the card. The bank currency offers three balance transfer options for customers applying for a new credit card:

1.

0 percent interest for 6 months.

2.

2.9 percent interest for 12 months.

3.

3.9 percent interest for 24 months.

The bank requires that customers first elect whether to transfer a balance. If customers elect to transfer a balance, they must select one of the three options.

Which control allows you to display all the balance transfer offers on the form, but only allows the customer to select one offer?

A. Radio buttons

B. Check box

C. Picklist

D. Text area

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

In an insurance claims application, you want to capture miscellaneous inventory items, as displayed in the screen below.

A miscellaneous item has a name and value, and is defined as a data type. You want to store the data entered in a property called .Items. Which property type should .Items be?

A. Single Value

B. Value List

C. Page List

D. Page

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

You need to configure a case type to send a confirmation for change-of-address requests. The confirmation is sent to customers as an email, text message, and letter. Which two options ensure that the content of the confirmation is the same for all three correspondence types? (Choose two.)

A. Create one correspondence rule containing the confirmation, then circumstance the correspondence rule for each correspondence type.

B. Create one correspondence rule for each correspondence type. Configure each correspondence rule to reference another correspondence rule that contains the confirmation.

C. Create one correspondence rule containing the confirmation. Configure the correspondence rule to support all three correspondence types.

D. Create one correspondence rule for each correspondence type. Configure each correspondence rule to reference a paragraph rule that contains the confirmation.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

Users can access an apartment search application from different devices with different screen sizes. A screen displays the photos of available properties. On a wide desktop screen, the photos are displayed in an inline format. On a smart phone, the photos should be displayed in a vertical stack.

How do you implement the screen for this requirement?

A. Use a dynamic layout with a responsive breakpoint at smart phone screen width to change from an inline format to a stacked format.

B. Circumstance the section rule to display the photos with different arrangements at different screen sizes.

C. Use acolumn layout with a responsive breakpoint at smart phone screen width to hide the left and right columns.

D. Circumstance the layout to display the photos with different arrangements at different screen sizes.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: References:


Question 7:

You have been asked to configure the following relationship between three case types: Account Open, Link Savings, and Fund Account.

1.

A customer can complete an Account Open case before completing a Fund Account case.

2.

A customer must complete a Link Savings case before completing a Fund Account case. Which configuration satisfies this requirement?

A. Configure theAccount Opencase type to create aFund Accountcase as a top-level case. Configure theAccount Opencase type to create aLink Savingscase as a child case.

B. Configure theAccount Opencase type to create aFund Accountcase as a childcase. Configure theFund Accountcase type to create aLink Savingscase as a top-level case.

C. Configure theAccount Opencase type to create aFund Accountcase as a top-level case. Configure theFund Accountcase type to create aLink Savingscase as achild case.

D. Configure theAccount Opencase type to create the other cases as top-level cases. Add a validate rule to theAccount Opencase to require a resolvedLink Savingscase before theFund Accountcase can be resolved.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You want to create a data page with a list of available shipping options. The shipping options are stored in a database table mapped in the application. Which source option would you select for the data page?

A. Lookup

B. Report definition

C. Data transform

D. Service

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

You want to modify the following order approval process so that a text message is sent to a customer when the order has been approved and will be fulfilled.

How would you modify the process to send the text message?

A. Add a Utilityto the connector leaving the Fulfillment subprocess. Configure the shape to call the CorrNew activity.

B. Add a notification to the Yes connector.

C. Add a Utility shape to the Yes connector. Configure the shape to call the CorrNew activity.

D. Add an Assignment shape to the Yes connector and add a notification to the assignment.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

While preparing to release an application, you notice a guardrail violation on an activity you wrote. The activity copies the content of a previous customer order to the current order. How do you address the guardrail violation?

A. Justify the warning, since an activity is required in this situation.

B. Replace the activity with a data transform to copy the content of the previous order to the current order.

C. Identify an API activity to use in place of the activity you wrote.

D. Ignore the warning if the compliance score is 90 or greater, since the application is considered ready for release.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You have been asked to configured a rule for use in a business process to evaluate multiple property values and return a text value as a result. Which type of rule satisfies this requirement?

A. Data transform

B. When rule

C. Validate

D. Decision tree

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

On a service level, the passed deadline interval is measured from __________________________.

A. When a user begins the assignment.

B. When the assignment is ready for a user.

C. The end of the deadline interval.

D. The end of the goal interval.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: References:


Question 13:

You have been asked to create a report that displays the following information:

-Assigned case worker (.pxAssignedOperatorID)

-Requestor (.pxCreateOperator)

-Request date (.pxCreateDateTime)

-Due date (.DueDate)

Assigned vendor (.VendorName)

The report contains a filer to only return purchase requests with a status (.pyStatusWork) of open.

Which property can you optimize to improve report performance?

A.

.pxAssignedOperatorID

B.

.DueDate

C.

.pxCreateDateTime

D.

.pyStatusWork

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

During a playback, you place a flow in draft mode to address which limitation?

A. Toprevent additional shapes from being added to the flow.

B. To avoid errors due to references to rules that do not yet exists.

C. To save an incomplete flow.

D. To allow users to choose decision outcomes if a decision rule is not yet available.

Correct Answer: B

eference:http://pegasystems2.http.internapcdn.net/pegasystems2/lrd_and_reference_docs/ sae2_71ml6_StudentGuide_20141114.pdf(p.204)


Question 15:

You want to provide instructions to the user filling out a form. You are considering using paragraph rules for the instructions. What three benefits do paragraph rules provide over standard labels? (Choose three.)

A. Paragraph rules be edited by the user.

B. Paragraph rules support rich text.

C. Paragraph rules can include images.

D. Paragraph rule are supported in correspondence.

E. Paragraph rules can be translated.

Correct Answer: BCD


Read More →

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Question 1:

Which property can be used to control the look and feel of the In-Place Form control?

A. themeId

B. themeCSS

C. newLookFeel

D. environment

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which is a valid Form Table control property?

A. formId

B. tableId

C. formTableId

D. formDescription

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Gabe is using the Calendar classes to create a repeat meeting. How does Gabe use the NotesCalendar class to create a repeating event?

A. Gabe will need to use the CreateRepeatEntry method of the NotesCalendar class.

B. Gabe needs to include an RRule item in the iCalendar data he is passing to the CreateEntry call.

C. Gabe will need to make a call to the CreateEntry method of the NotesCalendar class for each occurrence of the event.

D. Gabe should populate the Repeat property of the NotesCalendarEntry to true and populate the RepeatInterval property of theNotesCalendarEntry with the correct data.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Jessica wants to resize a text field from its default size. What should she enter in the HTML attributes for the field?

A. ROWS=10 COLS=20

B. “ROWS=10 COLS=20”

C. SIZE=75 MAXLENGTH=100

D. “SIZE=75 MAXLENGTH=100”

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Charles is using IBM LotusScript to read a text file. He would like to read the first 23 characters in the file and replace them with a different string value. The following code snippet has a statement missing after the last line. What statement will Charles append to the snippet to complete the code?

A. Write #eof

B. Close fileNum%

C. Close #fileNum%

D. Close fileNum% for Output

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Nathan wishes to create the ability to refresh a specific area of his XPage. Starting with “Select the onclick event of the button”, which steps would Nathan then take to select the panel to refresh?

A. Select the Full Update option.

B. Select Partial Update and click on the Select Element Button.

C. Click the Add Action button and select the Modify Field action.

D. Click the Add Action button and select the Execute Script action.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Slobo is working on a new XPages application. He has a requirement to use a Stylesheet (CSS). How would he use it on a XPage?

A. Add the Style Sheet to the NSF. In the XPage, insert at the top of the XPage

B. Add the Style Sheet to the NSF. In the XPage, insert at the top of the XPage:

C. Add the CSS stylesheet in the Resources/Style Sheets section. Using the Resources tab in the Properties view of the XPage that needs to usethe CSS classes, use the Add Resource button and choose Style Sheet from the drop-down menu of choices.

D. Add the CSS stylesheet in the Shared Elements/Style Sheets section. Using the Resources tab in the Properties view of the XPage that needsto use the CSS classes, use the Add Resource button and choose Style Sheet from the drop-down menu of choices.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which statement is true when developing an XPage in IBM Domino Designer?

A. The XPages XML syntax is called XSP markup.

B. The Source View depicts an HTML representation of the XPage.

C. XPages controls cannot be added to the XPage through the Source View.

D. Use of standard HTML tags like

and are not permitted.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Scott wants to add a tag with a computed rendered property to his XPage. He knows that that tag is not valid XML markup. How can he add the computed style tag to his XPage using one of the All property values of a computed text field?

A. Set the for property to “style”.

B. Set the attr property to “style”.

C. Set the tagName property to “style”.

D. Set the htmlfilter property to “style”.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What are the three different parts of the managed bean in the faces-config.xml file? (Choose three.)

A. Bean class

B. Bean name

C. Bean scope

D. Bean location

E. Bean property

F. Bean var name

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 11:

Sally wants to manually bind an Edit Box control to the LastName field on her document data source “contactDoc”. Which is the correct syntax for the Edit Box?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which statement is true regarding the Extension Library Tooltip control?

A. A developer is allowed to place other data components in between the start and end tags.

B. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer must set dynamicContent to false.

C. When the position property is set to auto, the tooltip calculates where it should display in relation to the element on the page.

D. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer does not need to set dynamicContent to true.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Michael has designed a mobile application with two mobile pages. For the first mobile page he set the pageName property to “page1” and for the second mobile page he set the pageName property to “page2”. What should Michael add on the second page to navigate the mobile application user to the first page when touched?

A. Add a Tab Bar Button control and set its targetPage property to “page1”.

B. Add a Page Heading control and set its moveTo property to “page1”.

C. Code an onClick event with the Move To Application Page simple action and set its target property to “page1”.

D. Code an onTouch event with the Move To Application Page simple action and set its target property to “page1”.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which control should Jane use to switch display to any one of several views in the Customers application?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which control can a Tool Bar Button control be added into within a mobile application?

A. Toolbar

B. Tab Bar

C. Rounded List

D. Page Heading

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which of the following act in the united states specifically criminalizes the transmission of unsolicited commercial e-mail(SPAM) without an existing business relationship.

A. 2004 CANSPAM Act

B. 2003 SPAM Preventing Act

C. 2005 US-SPAM 1030 Act

D. 1990 Computer Misuse Act

Correct Answer: A

The CAN-SPAM Act of 2003 (Controlling the Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing Act) establishes requirements for those who send commercial email, spells out penalties for spammers and companies whose products are advertised in spam if they violate the law, and gives consumers the right to ask emailers to stop spamming them. The law, which became effective January 1, 2004, covers email whose primary purpose is advertising or promoting a commercial product or service, including content on a Web site. A “transactional or relationship message” email that facilitates an agreed-upon transaction or updates a customer in an existing business relationship may not contain false or misleading routing information, but otherwise is exempt from most provisions of the CAN-SPAM Act.


Question 2:

Theresa is an IT security analyst working for the United Kingdom Internet Crimes Bureau in London. Theresa has been assigned to the software piracy division which focuses on taking down individual and organized groups that distribute copyrighted software illegally. Theresa and her division have been responsible for taking down over 2,000 FTP sites hosting copyrighted software. Theresa\’s supervisor now wants her to focus on finding and taking down websites that host illegal pirated software. What are these sights called that Theresa has been tasked with taking down?

A. These sites that host illegal copyrighted software are called Warez sites

B. These sites that Theresa has been tasked to take down are called uTorrent sites

C. These websites are referred to as Dark Web sites

D. Websites that host illegal pirated versions of software are called Back Door sites

Correct Answer: A

The Warez scene, often referred to as The Scene (often capitalized) is a term of self-reference used by a community that specializes in the underground distribution of pirated content, typically software but increasingly including movies and music.


Question 3:

Marshall is the information security manager for his company. Marshall was just hired on two months ago after the last information security manager retired. Since the last manager did not implement or even write IT policies, Marshall has begun writing IT security policies to cover every conceivable aspect. Marshall\’s supervisor has informed him that while most employees will be under one set of policies, ten other employees will be under another since they work on computers in publicly- accessible areas. Per his supervisor, Marshall has written two sets of policies. For the users working on publicly-accessible computers, their policies state that everything is forbidden. They are not allowed to browse the Internet or even use email. The only thing they can use is their work related applications like Word and Excel.

What types of policies has Marshall written for the users working on computers in the publicly- accessible areas?

A. He has implemented Permissive policies for the users working on public computers

B. These types of policies would be considered Promiscuous policies

C. He has written Paranoid policies for these users in public areas

D. Marshall has created Prudent policies for the computer users in publicly-accessible areas

Correct Answer: C

It says that everything is forbidden, this means that there is a Paranoid Policy implemented


Question 4:

When a malicious hacker identifies a target and wants to eventually compromise this target, what would be the first step the attacker would perform?

A. Cover his tracks by eradicating the log files

B. Gain access to the remote computer for identification of venue of attacks

C. Perform a reconnaissance of the remote target for identification of venue of attacks

D. Always starts with a scan in order to quickly identify venue of attacks

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

This type of Port Scanning technique splits TCP header into several packets so that the packet filters are not able to detect what the packets intends to do.

A. UDP Scanning

B. IP Fragment Scanning

C. Inverse TCP flag scanning

D. ACK flag scanning

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Vulnerability scanners are automated tools that are used to identify vulnerabilities and misconfigurations of hosts. They also provide information regarding mitigating discovered vulnerabilities.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Vulnerability scanners attempt to identify vulnerabilities in the hosts scanned.

B. Vulnerability scanners can help identify out-of-date software versions, missing patches, or system upgrades

C. They can validate compliance with or deviations from the organization\’s security policy

D. Vulnerability scanners can identify weakness and automatically fix and patch the vulnerabilities without user intervention

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What is the correct command to run Netcat on a server using port 56 that spawns command shell when connected?

A. nc -port 56 -s cmd.exe

B. nc -p 56 -p -e shell.exe

C. nc -r 56 -c cmd.exe

D. nc -L 56 -t -e cmd.exe

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

In what stage of Virus life does a stealth virus gets activated with the user performing certain actions such as running an infected program?

A. Design

B. Elimination

C. Incorporation

D. Replication

E. Launch

F. Detection

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Which Steganography technique uses Whitespace to hide secret messages?

A. snow

B. beetle

C. magnet

D. cat

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Web servers often contain directories that do not need to be indexed. You create a text file with search engine indexing restrictions and place it on the root directory of the Web Server.

User-agent: * Disallow: /images/ Disallow: /banners/ Disallow: /Forms/ Disallow: /Dictionary/ Disallow: /_borders/ Disallow: /_fpclass/ Disallow: /_overlay/ Disallow: /_private/ Disallow: /_themes/

What is the name of this file?

A. robots.txt

B. search.txt

C. blocklist.txt

D. spf.txt

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Lee is using Wireshark to log traffic on his network. He notices a number of packets being directed to an internal IP from an outside IP where the packets are ICMP and their size is around 65,536 bytes. What is Lee seeing here?

A. Lee is seeing activity indicative of a Smurf attack.

B. Most likely, the ICMP packets are being sent in this manner to attempt IP spoofing.

C. Lee is seeing a Ping of death attack.

D. This is not unusual traffic, ICMP packets can be of any size.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

You are gathering competitive intelligence on an organization. You notice that they have jobs listed on a few Internet job-hunting sites. There are two jobs for network and system administrators. How can this help you in foot printing the organization?

A. To learn about the IP range used by the target network

B. To identify the number of employees working for the company

C. To test the limits of the corporate security policy enforced in the company

D. To learn about the operating systems, services and applications used on the network

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

What techniques would you use to evade IDS during a Port Scan? (Select 4 answers)

A. Use fragmented IP packets

B. Spoof your IP address when launching attacks and sniff responses from the server

C. Overload the IDS with Junk traffic to mask your scan

D. Use source routing (if possible)

E. Connect to proxy servers or compromised Trojaned machines to launch attacks

Correct Answer: ABDE


Question 14:

Jason is the network administrator of Spears Technology. He has enabled SNORT IDS to detect attacks going through his network. He receives Snort SMS alerts on his iPhone whenever there is an attempted intrusion to his network. He receives the following SMS message during the weekend.

An attacker Chew Siew sitting in Beijing, China had just launched a remote scan on Jason\’s network with the hping command.

Which of the following hping2 command is responsible for the above snort alert?

A. chenrocks:/home/siew # hping -S -R -P -A -F -U 192.168.2.56 -p 22 -c 5 -t 118

B. chenrocks:/home/siew # hping -F -Q -J -A -C -W 192.168.2.56 -p 22 -c 5 -t 118

C. chenrocks:/home/siew # hping -D -V -R -S -Z -Y 192.168.2.56 -p 22 -c 5 -t 118

D. chenrocks:/home/siew # hping -G -T -H -S -L -W 192.168.2.56 -p 22 -c 5 -t 118

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Fred is scanning his network to ensure it is as secure as possible. Fred sends a TCP probe packet to a host with a FIN flag and he receives a RST/ACK response. What does this mean?

A. This response means the port he is scanning is open.

B. The RST/ACK response means the port Fred is scanning is disabled.

C. This means the port he is scanning is half open.

D. This means that the port he is scanning on the host is closed.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.

A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.

User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft Outlook.

You need to add the second organization to Outlook.

What should you do?

A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.

B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.

C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.

D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 for a customer.

The customer requires that the Email Router component be used.

You need to identify to the customer which email solutions are supported by the Email Router.

Which three email solutions should you identity? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

B. Exchange ActiveSync

C. A Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server for outgoing email

D. Microsoft Exchange Online

E. A Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) server for incoming email

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 3:

You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.

A manager at your company uses Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.

The manager stores a large amount of offline data, but the new data is NOT available offline. You need to ensure that the new data added to Dynamics CRM 2015 is available to the manager offline.

What should you do?

A. Upgrade to Microsoft SQL Server Express 2014.

B. Defragment the hard disk drive of the manager\’s computer.

C. Modify the Offline Synchronization Filters for Outlook.

D. Modify the Outlook Synchronization Filters.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.

You discover that Dynamics CRM tracks a large amount of spam messages.

You need to prevent Dynamics CRM from tracking all incoming email until the source of the SPAM is stopped. The solution must not prevent the tracking of outbound email.

What should you do?

A. Click Reject Email for the mailbox of each user.

B. Set Incoming Email to None.

C. Disable the Microsoft Dynamic CRM 2015 for Outlook add-in for all users.

D. Stop the Email Router.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A user attempts to upgrade Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook to Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.

The user reports that the upgrade fails.

You need to ensure that the user can install Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook successfully.

What should you do?

A. Uninstall Microsoft SQL Express.

B. Uninstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook.

C. Instruct the user to run microsoft.crm.application.outlook.configwizard.exe and specify the /xa parameter.

D. Add the user to the local Administrators group.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

You need to configure email synchronization for a Dynamics CRM 2015 user. Which record should you modify?

A. Contact

B. User

C. Account

D. Mailbox

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A user named Admin1 recently installed Dynamics CRM 2015 on a server named Server1.

You need to instruct Admin1 to prepare the installation to meet the following requirements: Another user named Admin2 must be able to create an organization.

Five users must be able to manage Dynamics CRM 2015 data.

Only the required client access licenses (CALs) must be purchased.

Which three tasks should you instruct Admin1 to do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. From Deployment Manager, add Admin2.

B. Purchase five CALs.

C. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add Admin2.

D. From Deployment Manager, add the five users.

E. Purchase seven CALs.

F. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add the five users.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 8:

You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains a server named Server1.

Server1 has the following components installed: All of the Dynamics CRM Front End Server roles

All of the Dynamics CRM Back End Server roles

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions

Microsoft SQL Server

From Deployment Manager, you disable Server1.

Which two components will stop? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. The Microsoft Dynamics CRM VSS Writer service

B. Sandbox Processing Service

C. The SQL Server service

D. SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)

E. Email Integration Service

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

Which data encryption technology does Dynamics CRM 2015 use to encrypt password fields in system entities?

A. Encrypting File System (EFS)

B. Data Encryption Standard (DES)

C. Bitlocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker)

D. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You have a Dynamics CRM 2015 server.

You install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on a different server. You are implementing an Internet-facing deployment for Dynamics CRM 2015.

You need to ensure that users can access the deployment from the Internet to meet the following requirements:

The connection to the Dynamics CRM server must be encrypted.

Users must not be required to enter a port number when connecting to the Dynamics CRM server.

What should you configure?

A. An HTTPS binding on port 5555 on the Dynamics CRM server

B. An HTTPS binding on port 5555 on the AD FS server

C. An HTTPS binding on port 443 on the AD FS server

D. An HTTPS binding on port 443 on the Dynamics CRM server

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which statement correctly describes the backup and restore capabilities of Microsoft System Center 2012 for Dynamics CRM 2015?

A. System Center 2012 can use the VSS writer to back up the Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 databases used by Dynamics CRM 2015.

B. System Center 2012 can provide automatic failover of the Dynamics CRM 2015 databases.

C. System Center 2012 can be used to perform granular restores of individual objects in Dynamics CRM 2015.

D. System Center 2012 can be used to back up the databases used by Dynamics CRM 2015 while users are connected to the organization.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.

You complete the Internet-Facing Deployment Configuration Wizard.

You need to ensure to that users on the Internet can access the deployment.

What should you create?

A. A Kerberos delegation in Active Directory

B. A service connection point (SCP) in Active Directory

C. A zone delegation in the internal DNS zone

D. A record in the external DNS zone

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. The server runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to change the user account used to start the Dynamics CRM services in the least amount of time possible. What should you use?

A. Deployment Manager

B. Add or remove programs

C. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio

D. Server Manager

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You install Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015 on a server named Server1. You need to upgrade Server1 to Dynamics CRM Server 2015 as quickly as possible. What should you do?

A. Install Microsoft SQL Server 2012 R2 on another server on the network, and then install Dynamics CRM Server 2015 on the new server.

B. From Server1, uninstall Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015, and then install Dynamics CRM Server 2015.

C. Install Dynamics CRM Server 2015 on a new server, and then run the Microsoft SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA).

D. From Server1, enter a new product key in Deployment Manager.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

You have a Dynamics CRM 2013 Email Router. You plan to upgrade the Email Router to Dynamics CRM 2015.

You need to back up the state files for the Email Router before you perform the upgrade.

Where can you locate the state files?

A. %ProgramFiles%\Microsoft Dynamics CRM\

B. %ProgramFiles%\Microsoft Dynamics CRM\Setup

C. %ProgramFiles%\Microsoft CRM Email Router

D. %ProgramFiles%\Microsoft CRM Email Router\Tools

Correct Answer: D


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