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Question 1:

Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?

A. because the Ethernet standard was fastest

B. because the Ethernet standard was released for general use

C. because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes

D. because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What is an example of the use of location information?

A. to determine the user\’s native language

B. to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform

C. to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS

D. to provide the correct version of the application for the user\’s operating system

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

What does the integrity of information mean?

A. It means that the access to the information is limited.

B. It means that the information can be accessed by those users who are allowed to access it.

C. It means that the information is accurate.

D. It means that the information is protected.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What is an important limitation of Cloud computing?

A. actuality of data

B. inflexibility

C. regulatory concerns

D. volume of waste

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is a major benefit of using applications on mobile devices?

A. Mobile devices are cheaper than personal computers.

B. Mobile devices provide location independence.

C. Mobile devices uniquely identify the user approaching the application

D. Mobile devises are more secure than personal computers.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is a difference between XML and HTML?

A. XML is used to format many types of documents and structures; HTML formats the display of content in a web-browser.

B. HTML is used to format many types of documents and structures; XML formats the display of content in a web-browser.

C. HTML can be used to format the display of content in a web-browser, XML cannot.

D. XML can be used to format the display of content in a web-browser, HTML cannot.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Why is privacy an area of concern in Cloud computing?

A. Data cannot be securely stored in a Cloud solution.

B. Data always resides in another country, with different privacy laws.

C. People using Cloud solutions are afraid that their data is not secure in the Cloud.

D. Privacy laws vary from country to country.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which characteristic of Identity management systems uses presence and location to determine available services and capabilities?

A. digital identity

B. group management

C. role management

D. separation of duties

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Restricting access to systems/applications based on time is part of which Triple-A security cornerstone?

A. Accounting

B. Application

C. Authentication

D. Authorization

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Capacity management is a process to ensure IT infrastructure is used efficiently and that it is provided at the right time and price in the needed volumes.

Which ISO/IEC 20000 process group does Capacity management belong to?

A. Control processes

B. Resolution processes

C. Relationship processes

D. Service delivery processes

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

How can a move to Cloud Computing reduce capital expenditure?

A. It can reduce the number of applications in use within the enterprise.

B. It can reduce the number of IT staff in the datacenter.

C. It needs less client computers to access the enterprise applications in the Cloud.

D. It pays for the use of hardware, not for the value of the hardware at the time of purchase.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What is a main benefit of a Thin Client?

A. Access to unauthorized web sites can be locked.

B. Access to web applications can easily be restricted.

C. Users can log in from a n y location.

D. Users cannot install unauthorized or risky software.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

What is the major benefit for software developers with regard to Cloud platforms?

A. Connectivity with other platforms makes it easier for users to connect to the Cloud.

B. Software developers can design, build and test their solutions faster.

C. Software developers do not benefit from Cloud platforms.

D. Solutions may be marketed on any platform.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What advantage does PaaS have compared to IaaS?

A. The provider takes care of scalability.

B. The user is free to choose the server the application runs on.

C. The user may choose any programming language to write an application.

D. The dependency on the network is lower.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a Cloud solution may change and in the worst case increase.

How can this happen?

A. In certain cases the TCO is intentionally shortened by lack of vision on future developments.

B. In certain cases the TCO is just not the right measure for calculating relevant costs and expenditures.

C. In some cases customers have not acted upon a good business case.

D. In some cases only the distribution of different components that add up to the TCO may change.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements?

A. HPE Moonshot

B. HPE MSA

C. HPE Apollo Servers

D. HPE SimplVity 380

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has been using VEEAM and the HPE StoreOnce 3620 shown in the exhibit to backup their environment. The customer\’s legal team has asked to double their retention times for all backup sets, and they are starting to run out of space on the StoreOnce. Which options could you recommend that the customer add to their existing configuration to accommodate the new requirement? (Select two. Each option represents a separate solution.)

A. HPE StoreOnce Cloud Bank Storage

B. HPE StoreOnce 3620 24TB Capacity Upgrade Kit

C. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 16Gb Fibre Channel Network Card

D. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 10/25Gb SFP Network card

E. HPE D3710 Storage Enclosure

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/storage/disk-based-backup-systems/pip.specifications.hpe-storeonce-systems.1011014655.html


Question 3:

A customer needs NFS access on a fiber channel array. What must be included in the solution to meet this requirement?

A. StoreEver

B. Storage File Controller

C. Smart Array Controller

D. StoreOnce RMC

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/gethtml.aspx?docname=a00047729enw


Question 4:

What is the correct cable type to use when connecting a pair of switches using Long Range (LR) Transceivers?

A. Direct Attach Cable (DAC)

B. Twin-Ax

C. Single Mode Fiber

D. Multi-mode Fiber

Correct Answer: C

Single-mode uses a single relatively straight beam of light, transmitted directly through a core of glass (or occasionally plastic) that\’s usually 50 microns across. Single-mode accommodates large power levels, and is almost exclusively used for Long Range (LR) applications.

Reference: https://info.hummingbirdnetworks.com/blog/answering-your-frequently-asked-s-about-different-types-of-10-gigabit-cisco-sfp-units


Question 5:

When is it appropriate for a customer to implement HPE OneView Standard?

A. To manage multiple servers

B. To monitor their services

C. To enable the Advanced iLO license

D. To update firmware

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04111367.pdf


Question 6:

You are creating a configuration for a new Nimble HF40 array. Which tool should you use to ensure that you include adequate cache in the configuration?

A. HPE NinjaSTARS

B. HPE Storage Sizer

C. HPE OneView

D. HPE SPOCK

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A customer needs a single, dual-processor server for an Enterprise Resource Planning solution for a single office. The customer application uses a mix of HDDs and SSDs and up to 3TB of RAM. Which HPE Solution should you propose?

A. HPE Synergy Solution

B. HPE Apollo 2000 Server

C. HPE ML350 Gen10

D. HPE ML110 Gen10

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-8758ENW.pdf


Question 8:

What should you configure to limit the scope of broadcast domains in an Ethernet network?

A. Trunks

B. VSAN

C. Static ARP

D. VLAN

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/a00069000-9999/a00069468/a00069468enw.pdf


Question 9:

What is an access port on an Ethernet switch?

A. A port that carries FCP frames inside the network

B. A port that carries multiple VLANs

C. A port that is connected to an FCF

D. A port that carries untagged frames inside the network

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=mmr_kc-0102233


Question 10:

You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration:

Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache,

dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit

Two SN3000B FC Switches

Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed solution?

A. HPE NinjaSTARS

B. HPE One Configuration Advanced

C. HPE OneView Advanced

D. HPE SPOCK

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A Network administrator connects two switches together with multiple links of the same speed, duplex, and media type. The administrator expected the links to be aggregated, but they are not. The administrator confirmed that the ports are

part of the appropriate link aggregation groups and that the permitted VLANs match.

Switch A has the lower LACP System Priority.

Which LACP operation states describe the failure above?

A. Switch A: Active; Switch B: Active

B. Switch A: Active; Switch B: Passive

C. Switch A: Passive; Switch B: Passive

D. Switch A: Passive; Switch B: Active

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\’s administrator has asked you for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to

determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection.

What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use?

A. 18

B. 32

C. 6

D. 8

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A customer wants to install an HPE Proliant server that has a single dual port 10Gb NIC. Which NIC feature should you introduce to allow each 10Gb port to be seen as four individual adapters in the operating system?

A. NPAR

B. RoCE

C. FCoE

D. RDMA

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/getpdf.aspx/c04312719.pdf?ver=12


Question 14:

A retail company recently implemented a Video surveillance solution. They now need an MSA storage solution with 100TB capacity. They want to be able to add more disk capacity if needed. Which HPE tool can help you choose a storage solution, determine the total usable capacity, and create a BOM?

A. HPE SPOCK

B. HPE NinjaSTARS

C. HPE Storage Sizing Tool

D. HPE One Config Advanced

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A customer requires a management solution that will provide email notifications if hardware errors occur on their servers. Which management solution provides this functionality?

A. UEFI System Configuration

B. iLO Advanced Edition

C. HPE SUM

D. HPE SUT

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docLocale=en_USanddocId=emr_na- a00026111en_us


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Question 1:

Which statement is correct about trunk ports?

A. Trunk ports mast have an IRB assigned to accept VLAN tagged traffic

B. By default, trunk ports accept only VLAN tagged traffic

C. By default, a trunk port can have only a single VLAN assigned

D. Trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept untagged traffic.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Exhibit.

Referring to the exhibit, which policy will export routes to IBGP peers?

A. staric-4

B. scatic-2

C. static-1

D. static.c-2

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which two statements are correct regarding the root bridge election process when using ST P? (Choose two )

A. A lower system MAC address is preferred

B. A higher bridge priority is preferred

C. A lower bridge priority is preferred

D. A higher system MAC address is preferred

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

Exhibit.

Click the Exhibit button Referring to the exhibit, what will be the IS-IS adjacency result of the configurations?

A. A level 1 and level 2 IS-IS adjacency will form

B. A level 2 IS4S adjacency will form

C. No IS-IS adjacencies will form

D. A level 1 IS-IS adjacency will form

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Exhibit.

***Exhibit is Missing***

Which two statements are correct. (Choose two.)

A. Route 2001:2244:3311:321:233::.128 has been prepended.

B. The active path to2001:2244:3311:321:233::.128 will exist using interface irb.433.

C. Route 2001:2244:3311:321:233::.128 will be advertised to an EBGP peer in AS 62553.

D. The AS path shows two hops to their IBGP routers within autonomous system 62553.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

Exhibit.

A number of reports from end users indicate that internal and external communications are intermittent and not reliable. You verified the status of the switch ports and have determined that they are up and operational. You also noticed a very high level of link bandwidth utilization on those same ports. The current topology of the affected environment is shown in the exhibit.

What would be the cause of the reported issues?

A. A lack of port-based ACLs filtering the traffic flows.

B. A malformed route-based ACL Improperly filtering traffic flows.

C. A misconfigured interior gateway protocol (IGP).

D. A lack of a loop-prevention mechanism or protocol.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which OSPF packet type is sent when an OSPF router detects its database is state?

A. Database description

B. Hello

C. Link-state acknowledgment

D. Link-state request

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

In which two STP states is a port active and a MAC address learned? (Choose two.)

A. Blocking

B. Forwarding

C. Disabled

D. Learning

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

What are three types of port designation specific to Private VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. Promiscuous ports

B. Transparent ports

C. PVLAN trunk ports

D. Designated ports

E. Isolated ports

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 10:

Which device is used to separate collision domains?

A. Switch

B. Router

C. Hub

D. firewall

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

How many bytes of overhead are added to packet traversing a GRE tunnel?

A. 20

B. 24

C. 12

D. 16

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: IP-IP adds 20 bytes of overhead GRE adds 24 bytes of overhead


Question 12:

Click the Exhibit button.

You want to prevent rogue BPDUs from lab devices reaching the internal through the Lab_Switch device. Referring to the exhibit, what should be done to accomplish this task?

A. Configure the three lab ports as edge ports

B. Configure an input filter on interface xe-0/2/0 to discard the RSTP packets

C. Configure the three lab ports under the protocols layer2-control bpdu-block hierarchy on the switch

D. Configure protocols rstp with the bpdu-block-on-edge parameter for interface xe-0/2/0

Correct Answer: C

https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/reference/configuration- statement/bpdu-blockedit-protocols-layer2-control.html


Question 13:

Which Junos feature allows you to combine multiple interface into a single bundle?

A. VRRP

B. Virtual Classis

C. LAG

D. NSB

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which two statements about DHCP snooping are correct? (Choose two.)

A. DHCP snooping inspects all DHCP packets on untrusted ports.

B. DHCP snooping uses ARP to add statically defined IP addresses to its database.

C. The DHCP database maps IP addresses. MAC addresses, and the associated VLAN.

D. By default, the Junos OS treats access ports as trusted and trunk ports as untrusted.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

Which statement is true when using LAGs with an EX4300?

A. Speeds on member links can differ.

B. Member links must be contiguous.

C. Half duplex is supported on the LAG.

D. You can have up to 16 member links per LAG.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A customer wants users to duplicate all of their Outlook contacts into the one-X® Portal personal directory. How would you recommend the users do this?

A. Inform the customer this is not recommended.

B. Import the Outlook contacts using a .csv format.

C. Add each Outlook contact individually into the personal directory.

D. Copy and paste all contacts from Outlook in their personal directory.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

From which application are log files required for escalating issues to Avaya support?

A. SMDR

B. System Monitor

C. Customer Call Status

D. Manager Report

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Time profiles can be used to automate a customer out-of hours setting. It is also possible to override these times manually to either deactivate or activate the time profile.

What would you need to create to allow customer control of the time profile?

A. Directory Number

B. Hunt Group

C. Short Code

D. Time Profile

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

How can you find the IP address of an IP extension?

A. Use ARP from your PC.

B. Use the Extension Summary in SSA.

C. Look on the label on the underside of all IP Phones.

D. Use Monitor to reset the telephone, and watch it get a new DHCP address.

Correct Answer: B

References: https://community.spiceworks.com/topic/302795-find-ip-phones-ip-address-from-avaya-ip-manager


Question 5:

To create and make changes to all aspects of the system, which mode in Manager do you select?

A. Installation Mode

B. Simplified View

C. Basic Edition

D. Configuration Mode

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

You have configured enough SIP channels to carry the expected communications load, but users are

reporting that sometimes they cannot call out and callers cannot get through. Based on the information in the exhibit, what is causing the problem?

A. The system is ignoring refresh messages.

B. The caller ID is not passed by some carriers.

C. The calls are being referred incorrectly.

D. The timer should be set to 2 minutes.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

When implementing a fully integrated multi-site network using only IP500 control units, which license is required to be on all sites?

A. Advanced Small Community Networking

B. IP500 IP Office Multi-Site Network

C. IP500 Voice Networking Channels

D. Preferred Edition ?Messaging

Correct Answer: D

References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101005793


Question 8:

Which two methods are voicemails to email with the Voicemail Pro? (Choose two.)

A. Outlook

B. MAPI

C. SNMP

D. SMTP

E. TAPI

Correct Answer: BD

References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100174760 Page: 57


Question 9:

Which Application will enable users to access their own recordings from within Media Manager?

A. Web Self Management

B. Web Self Recordings

C. Web Self Media Manager

D. Web Self Administration

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which application must be installed on a separate server or hard drive partition when installing IP Office Server Edition?

A. Web Services

B. Voicemail Pro

C. Avaya Contact Recorder

D. one-X® Portal

E. Call Detail Records

Correct Answer: C

References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101005101 Page: 9


Question 11:

A customer has two main receptionists using SoftConsole; however, when they are on a break or at lunch, there are four back office workers that can open the SoftConsole on their PC to take calls to cover these periods.

How many licenses are required for this to work?

A. 8

B. 6

C. 2

D. 4

Correct Answer: D

References: http://www.ipofficeinfo.com/pdf/softconsoleinstall_en.pdf Page: 9


Question 12:

Which two licenses are required for Avaya Communicator? (Choose two.)

A. Power User

B. Basic User

C. Receptionist

D. Remote Worker

E. Office Worker

Correct Answer: AE

References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101005862


Question 13:

Using the Upgrade Wizard, which Password is required when upgrading the IP Office 500 V2?

A. Manager password

B. Security password

C. System password

D. Administration password

Correct Answer: C

References: http://www.mrboingo.com/index.php/archives/58


Question 14:

Session Border Control is a key component for QoS, security and routing, for a customer using which two components? (Choose two.)

A. Analogue devices

B. Remote Workers

C. Dect Users

D. PRI-Trunk

E. SIP-Trunk

Correct Answer: BE

References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100177106


Question 15:

Which IP Office 500 V2 base card supports both Analogue and Digital telephony?

A. the Combination card

B. the VCM Card

C. the TCM8 Card

D. the Base Carrier Card

Correct Answer: A

References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100075176


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Question 1:

What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

A. NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server

B. NAS uses the file system of the client computers.

C. The NAS operating system does not provide security features.

D. With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

What is the generally accepted communication protocol on the Internet?

A. Net BIOS

B. OSI

C. SNA

D. TCP/IP

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is a main challenge for enterprises in using cell phones for collaboration?

A. Applications for collaboration are limited.

B. Collaborative applications are complicated.

C. Employees want to use their private cell phones.

D. Separating business data from personal data.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

How can a protocol analyzer be used?

A. to analyze errors in the protocol syntax used in a failed message

B. to distribute messages according to the addressing protocol they use

C. to measure the bandwidth required for different types of transactions

D. to prevent virus infections in the network software

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Why is text messaging in automobiles outlawed in many countries?

A. for financial reasons

B. for safety reasons

C. for security reasons

D. for synchronization reasons

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the main tool for users accessing the Cloud?

A. remote desktop

B. the firewall

C. the web-browser

D. the web-server

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What is an example of the implementation of federation?

A. driver\’s license

B. fingerprint

C. information card

D. iris scan

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What is the single point of truth in a Claim-based identity management solution?

A. the cloud application

B. the Hypervisor

C. the identity provider

D. the server hosting the application

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

What is an important environment related benefit of Cloud?

A. fewer requirements for power capabilities

B. highly protected data

C. independency from the Internet

D. small bandwidth

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

How could presence be used to enhance security in the Cloud?

A. by prohibiting users to access cloud applications, except when on their work place

B. by prohibiting users to access cloud applications at their work place

C. by restricting access to applications, depending on the user\’s physical location

D. by using a web cam to identify the user of a cloud application

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What is a major benefit of using applications on mobile devices?

A. Mobile devices are cheaper than personal computers.

B. Mobile devices provide location independence.

C. Mobile devices uniquely identify the user approaching the application

D. Mobile devises are more secure than personal computers.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What is the Pay as You Go Model?

A. a discount for customers changing their network provider

B. a discount for mobile connections based on the distance to the datacenter

C. to pay for a service after ending the contract

D. to pay for services based on their use

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

What is a difference between XML and HTML?

A. XML is used to format many types of documents and structures; HTML formats the display of content in a web-browser.

B. HTML is used to format many types of documents and structures; XML formats the display of content in a web-browser.

C. HTML can be used to format the display of content in a web-browser, XML cannot.

D. XML can be used to format the display of content in a web-browser, HTML cannot.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

How can moving to Cloud Computing reduce capital expenses?

A. One can reduce the number of applications in use within the enterprise.

B. One can reduce the number of IT staff in the datacenter.

C. One needs less client computers to access the enterprise applications in the Cloud.

D. One pays for the use of hardware, not for the value of the hardware at the time of purchase.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

What is a specific advantage of a Community Cloud?

A. It is tailored to the needs of a single community.

B. It is more secure than a Private Cloud.

C. It is cheaper than a Public Cloud.

D. It can form a Hybrid Cloud with a Private Cloud.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which of the following would be a red flag that indicates the possibility of inventory fraud?

I. The controller has assumed responsibility for approving all payments to certain vendors.

II. The controller has continuously delayed installation of a new accounts payable system, despite a corporate directive to implement it.

III. Sales commissions are not consistent with the organization\’s increased levels of sales.

IV.

Payments to certain vendors are supported by copies of receiving memos, rather than originals.

A.

I and II only

B.

II and III only

C.

I, II, and IV only

D.

I, III, and IV only

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

During an operational audit of a chain of pizza delivery stores, an auditor determined that cold pizzas were causing customer dissatisfaction. A review of oven calibration records for the last six months revealed that adjustments were made on over 40 percent of the ovens. Based on this, the auditor:

A. Has enough evidence to conclude that improperly functioning ovens are the cause.

B. Needs to conduct further inquiries and reviews to determine the impact of the oven variations on the pizza temperature.

C. Has enough evidence to recommend the replacement of some of the ovens.

D. Must search for another cause since approximately 60 percent of the ovens did not require adjustment.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

When assessing the risk associated with an activity, an internal auditor should:

A. Determine how the risk should best be managed.

B. Provide assurance on the management of the risk.

C. Modify the risk management process based on risk exposures.

D. Design controls to mitigate the identified risks.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the effectiveness of a credit-granting function?

A. Observe the process.

B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.

C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.

D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following situations might allow an employee to steal checks sent to an organization and subsequently cash them?

A. Checks are not restrictively endorsed when received.

B. Only one signature is required on the organization\’s checks.

C. One employee handles both accounts receivable and purchase orders.

D. One employee handles both cash deposits and accounts payable.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in the finance department of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging strategies and financial derivatives, use data and financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is also used to download data from the mainframe to assist in decisions. Which of the following should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?

A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.

B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement user access security at that level.

C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the vulnerability of the system to compromise.

D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

An audit of management\’s quality program includes testing the accuracy of the cost-of-quality reports provided to management. Which of the following internal control objectives is the focus of this testing?

A. To ensure compliance with policies, plans, procedures, laws, and regulations.

B. To ensure the accomplishment of established objectives and goals for operations or programs.

C. To ensure the reliability and integrity of information.

D. To ensure the economical and efficient use of resources.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

When internal auditors provide consulting services, the scope of the engagement is primarily determined by:

A. Internal auditing standards.

B. The audit engagement team.

C. The engagement client.

D. The internal audit activity\’s charter.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A manufacturing process could create hazardous waste at several production stages, from raw materials handling to finished goods storage. If the objective of a pollution prevention audit engagement is to identify opportunities for minimizing waste, in what order should the following opportunities be considered?

I. Recycling and reuse.

II. Elimination at the source.

III. Energy conservation.

IV.

Recovery as a usable product Treatment.

A.

V, II, IV, I, III.

B.

IV, II, I, III, V.

C.

I, III, IV, II, V.

D.

III, IV, II, V, I.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An organization\’s internal auditors are reviewing production costs at a gas-powered electrical generating plant. They identify a serious problem with the accuracy of carbon dioxide emissions reported to the environmental regulatory agency, due to computer errors. The auditors should immediately report the concern to:

A. The regulatory agency.

B. Plant management.

C. A plant health and safety officer.

D. The risk management function.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following would be an appropriate improvement to controls over large quantities of consumable material that are charged to expense when placed in bins which are accessible to production workers?

A. Relocate bins to the inventory warehouse.

B. Require management to compare the cost of consumable items used to the budget.

C. Lock the bins during normal working hours.

D. None of the above actions are needed for items of minor cost and size.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which of the following is a weakness that is inherent in the use of the test data method to test internal controls in a computer-based accounting system?

A. The auditor must test many transactions with the same condition in order to achieve assurance that the condition is being detected.

B. Conditions that were not specifically considered by the auditor may go untested.

C. The approach requires the creation of “dummy companies,” possibly destroying or altering actual company data in the process.

D. Inclusion of atypical data in the test data may cause errors to be noted on the exception report.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which of the following would be most helpful to a governmental auditor searching for the existence of multiple welfare claims that were filed under different names but used the same address?

A. Tagging and tracing.

B. Generalized audit software.

C. Integrated test facility.

D. Spreadsheet analysis.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What would be used to determine the collectability of accounts receivable balances?

A. The file of related shipping documents.

B. Negative accounts receivable confirmations.

C. Positive accounts receivable confirmations.

D. An aged accounts receivable listing.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which of the following would provide the best evidence of compliance with an airline\’s standard of having aircraft refueled and cleaned within a specified time of arrival at an airport?

A. Vendor fuel invoices that have been reconciled to inventory records.

B. Time cards completed by aircraft cleaning and fueling crews.

C. Observation of selected aircraft while they are being refueled and cleaned.

D. Comparison of the standard hourly labor costs for cleaning and fueling personnel with actual labor charges.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which two are true for achieving High Availability on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. Store your database across multiple regions so that half of the data resides in one region and the other half resides in another region.

B. Attach your block volume form Availability Domain 1 to a compute instance in Availability Domain 2 (and vice versa) so that they are highly available.

C. Configure your database to have Data Guard in another Availability Domain in Sync mode within a region.

D. Store your database files on Object Storage so that they are available in all Availability Domains in all regions.

E. Distribute your application servers across all Availability Domains within a region.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 2:

At the end of a terraform apply operation, what is the default output?

A. nothing by default

B. statistics about what was added, changed, and destroyed

C. the entire state file

D. statistics about what was added, changed, and destroyed, and the values of outputs

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.terraform.io/intro/getting-started/outputs.html


Question 3:

Which five are the required parameters to launch an instance in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose five)

A. subnet

B. Availability Domain

C. Virtual Cloud Network

D. host name

E. instance shape

F. image operating system

G. private IP address

Correct Answer: ABCEF

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Compute/Concepts/computeoverview.htm


Question 4:

Your application front end consists of several Oracle Cloud Infrastructure compute instances behind a load balancer. You have configured the load balancer to perform health checks on these instances. If an instance fails to pass the configured health checks, what will happen?

A. The instance is replaced automatically by the load balancer.

B. The instance is terminated automatically by the load balancer.

C. The instance is taken out of the back end set by the load balancer.

D. The load balancer stops sending traffic to that instance.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which statement is true about Oracle Cloud Identifiers (OCID)?

A. mytenancy.oc.ocid is a valid OCID.

B. If you delete a user, and them create a new user with the same name, the user will be considered a different user because of different OCIDs.

C. Users can customize OCIDs for all the resources in their compartments.

D. If you delete a user, and then create a new user with the same name, the new user will be assigned the exact same OCIDs as the system remembers.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Identity/Tasks/managingusers.htm (see note)


Question 6:

Which service is NOT supported by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI?

A. load balancer

B. compute

C. database

D. block volumes

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/API/Concepts/cliconcepts.htm#services


Question 7:

In which language are Terraform and Terraform providers written?

A. Python

B. Go

C. C

D. Ruby

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.terraform.io/docs/extend/writing-custom-providers.html


Question 8:

Given: When creating multiple subnets within a Virtual Cloud Network (VCN), security lists are often made to group common services, for example, SSH and RDP (remote access), 80 and 443 (HTTP), and so on. By default, what is the maximum number of security lists that can be associated with a subnet upon creation?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 5

D. 3

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Network/Tasks/managingVCNs.htm


Question 9:

Which certificate format is used with the load balancer?

A. PFX

B. PEM

C. PKCS12

D. CRT

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which two statements are true about subnets within a VCN? (Choose two.)

A. You can have multiple subnets in an Availability Domain for a given VCN.

B. Private and Public subnets cannot reside in the same Availability Domain for a given VCN.

C. Subnets can have their IP addresses overlap with other subnets in another network for a given VCN.

D. Instances obtain their private IP and the associated security list from their subnets.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://cloud.oracle.com/en_US/bare-metal-network/vcn/faq


Question 11:

Which resource is required when connecting to your on-premise network from your Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) via IPSec VPN or FastConnect?

A. Internet Gateway (IGW)

B. Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG)

C. local peering gateway

D. NAT

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://cloud.oracle.com/networking/vcn/faq


Question 12:

Which statement is true about restoring a block volume from a manual or policy-based block volume backup?

A. It can be restored as new volumes to any Availability Domain within the same region.

B. It must be restored as new volumes to the same Availability Domain on which the original block volume backup resides.

C. It can be restored as new volumes to any Availability Domain across different regions.

D. It can be restored as new volumes with different sizes from the backups.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Block/Concepts/blockvolumebackups.htm


Question 13:

Which three components can you configure in Oracle Infrastructure Identity and Access Management? (Choose three.)

A. Groups

B. Users

C. Instances

D. Policies

E. VCNs

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: https://cloud.oracle.com/governance/identity/faq


Question 14:

Where is the tenancy Oracle Cloud Identifier (OCID) located?

A. given by support on account creation

B. at the bottom of every console page

C. on the Identity ?Users page

D. contained within the compartment OCID

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/General/Concepts/identifiers.htm#two


Question 15:

Which two features are offered natively on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Database Cloud Service (DBCS)? (Choose two.)

A. Data Guard in Async mode within a region

B. GoldenGate replication between two regions

C. Data Guard in Maximum Protection mode

D. backup to Object Storage

Correct Answer: CD


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