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Question 1:

Which iSCSI initiator type can be used with any network interface card?

A. Software iSCSI initiator

B. Software FCoE adapter

C. Hardware Independent iSCSI initiator

D. Hardware Dependent iSCSI initiator

Correct Answer: A

A software iSCSI adapter is a VMware code built into the VMkernel. It allows your host to connect to the iSCSI storage device through standard network adapters. The software iSCSI adapter handles iSCSI processing while communicating with the network adapter. With the software iSCSI adapter, you can use iSCSI technology without purchasing specialized hardware.


Question 2:

An administrator is using virtual machine encryption in their vSphere 6.5 environment. The Key Management Server (KMS) has experienced a critical failure. Which two statements are true about VM encryption when the KMS is not available? (Choose two.)

A. VMs will shut down gracefully in the event of a KMS outage as a proactive measure to prevent data theft.

B. VMs which were running at the time of the KMS failure will continue to run.

C. If an ESXi host is rebooted, it will be unable to power on encrypted VMs until KMS connectivity is restored.

D. vCenter Server will continue to distribute encryption keys as long as it is not rebooted while the KMS is unreachable.

E. ESXi hosts within the same cluster will share keys with one another while the KMS is unreachable.

Correct Answer: BC

If the KMS is unreachable, the VMs running at the time of KMS failure will continue to run. Another fact is if an ESXi host is rebooted, it will not power on encrypted VMs until KMs connectivity is fully restored.


Question 3:

Which happens if the swap file of a virtual machine is inaccessible to the destination host during a vMotion?

A. The swap file is stored with the virtual machine configuration file.

B. The swap file is copied to the destination host.

C. The vMotion will fail.

D. The swap file is replicated to a datastore accessible by both hosts.

Correct Answer: A

If the destination host cannot access the specified swap file location, it stores the swap file with the virtual machine configuration file.


Question 4:

Which two encryption keys does the host use when encrypting virtual machine files? (Choose two.)

A. Public Key Infrastructure Encryption Key (PKI)

B. Master Encryption Key (MEK)

C. Data Encryption Key (DEK)

D. Key Encryption Key (KEK)

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

Which three types of Content Libraries exist within vSphere 6.5? (Choose three.)

A. Remote Content Library

B. Published Content Library

C. Local Content Library

D. Shared Content Library

E. Subscribed Content Library

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 6:

Which is the minimum vSphere Distributed Switch version needed to support Network Health Check?

A. 6.5

B. 5.1

C. 4.1

D. 5.5

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which is the minimum number of hosts required for a VMware vSAN cluster to be able to apply a vSAN RAID5 storage policy?

A. six hosts

B. three hosts

C. four hosts

D. five hosts

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

After deploying the vCenter Server Appliance, an administrator can log into the vSphere Web Client as “[email protected]”, but not with Active Directory domain credentials. Which action will troubleshoot this?

A. Create a domain group named “esxadmins” and add the domain account to it.

B. Add the Active Directory domain as a Single Sign-On identity source.

C. Change the Active Directory account password to match [email protected]” password.

D. Create a child domain named “vSphere.local”.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An administrator is attempting to access an ESXi host via the DCUI but is unable to do so.

Which could be two possible causes? (Choose two.)

A. The host in question has no out-of-band management capability (i.e. iLO/iDRAC).

B. The SSH service is disabled on the host.

C. Strict lockdown mode is enabled on the host.

D. Normal lockdown mode is enabled and the administrator is a member of the Exception User list.

E. The DCUI service is disabled on the host.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 10:

An administrator wants to enable VMware Fault Tolerance on a virtual machine.

Which two vSphere features are supported with Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)

A. VM Component Protection

B. vSphere HA

C. Storage DRS

D. Snapshots

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

Which feature of vSphere networking protects hosts from losing connection to vCenter Server as a result of misconfiguration of the management network?

A. NIC Teaming

B. Private VLAN

C. Rollback

D. Health Check

Correct Answer: C

By rolling configuration changes back, vSphere protects hosts from losing connection to vCenter Server as a result from misconfiguration of the management network.


Question 12:

The administrator wants to power on VM-K2, which has a 2GHz CPU reservation. VM-M1, VM-M2, and VM-K1 are all powered on. VM-K2 is not powered on.

The exhibit shows the parent and child resource reservations.

If Resource Pool RP-KID is configured with an expandable reservation, which statement is true?

A. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because there are insufficient resources.

B. VM-K2 will be able to power on since resource pool RP-KID has 2GHz available.

C. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because only 2GHz are reserved for RP-KID.

D. VM-K2 will receive resource priority and will be able to power on this scenario.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Where would a vSphere administrator find general vCenter Server logs on a vCenter Server Appliance?

A. /var/log/vmware/vpxd/

B. /var/log/messages

C. /etc/vmware-vpx/

D. /var/log/vmware/vsan-health/

Correct Answer: A

The VMware vCenter Server Appliance 6.0 logs are located in the /var/log/vmware/ folder. vpxd/vpxd.log –andgt; The main vCenter Serverlog


Question 14:

An administrator attempts to manually reclaim space on thin-provisioned VMFS6 volumes but finds that no additional space is being recovered.

Which could be causing this?

A. vSphere 6.5 does not support manual UNMAP.

B. The manual UNMAP operation has been moved to the vSphere web client.

C. The VASA version is use is incompatible.

D. UNMAP is automated for VMFS6.

Correct Answer: D

The additional space is not recovered because UNMAP is automated for VMFS 6. To get additional space recovered using the manual reclaim process, you need to remove UMAP from being automated for VMFS 6.


Question 15:

Which setting will allow a virtual machine to have direct secure access to an RDM?

A. NIOC

B. NPV

C. NPIV

D. CPUID Mask

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which two fields are mandatory when creating a new labor reporting transaction?

A. Type

B. Asset

C. Vendor

D. Location

E. Regular Hours

Correct Answer: AE


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Question 1:

Which of the following can result in poor report performance?

A. reports with filters

B. models with outer joins and cross joins

C. queries with database only processing

D. an optimized metadata model

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A Conditional format may be set on a List object in a report, generated and processed but is hidden from view?

A. Show/Hide Variable

B. Hidden Variable

C. Render Variable

D. Style Variable

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

In which two ways can a specific visualization in a dashboard be filtered?

A. A developer can only keep or exclude data points within an axis.

B. A developer can create a Calculation within the dashboard that will filter a specific visualization.

C. A developer can also add a local filter to filter a column or to define a filter condition.

D. A developer can build an embedded filter in a data module.

E. A developer can keep or exclude a few data points in the visualization.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Where does a developer change which package is marked as the default package in a report?

A. on the package properties

B. on the query properties

C. on the context menu for a package

D. on the report properties

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A Framework Manager model may be designed to incorporate Dimensionally Modeled Relational (DMR) objects, designed to offer the end user OLAP behavior when navigating dat

A. Which of the following statements is valid when designing DMR structures in Framework Manager?

B. Measures and Dimensions can reside in the same query subject.

C. The DMR structures need to resemble the objects in the star schema.

D. The order of the Determinants drives the hierarchy levels.

E. Each level in a hierarchy must reference a text-based attribute for its caption.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

After upgrading from Cognos version 10 what needs to be selected in order to create a data module on a data server?

A. Select “Allow web-based modeling” in Cognos Configuration when starting the server

B. Select “Allow web-based modeling” in the Cognos installer when upgrading the server components.

C. Under the Data Server Connection in the Administration Console configuration select “Allow Framework Manager”.

D. Under the Data Source Connection in the Administration Console configuration select “Allow web- based modeling”.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following is true about integration with collaboration platforms?

A. Integration with any collaboration platform can be used with report objects but not dashboard objects.

B. Integration with IBM Connections is si

C. A link to a report in “my content” can be shared to a team Slack channel if the integration is enabled.

D. Integration with Slack is supported.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

In an Exploration \’Data relationships\’ view, what does the thickness of the lines between data items represent?

A. the statistical strength of the relationship between the data items

B. the flow of information between categories, ie. money transfers between countries

C. the cardinality of one data item when grouped by another, ie. thicker signifies more unique values

D. the weighted average of each measure value compared with other measures

Correct Answer: A

https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSEP7J_11.1.0/com.ibm.swg.ba.cognos.ca_explor ations.doc/ca_explore_relationship_diagram.html


Question 9:

Which two of the following statements are true when creating a Drill-through for a visualization in a dashboard?

A. A developer can create Drill-throughs to a specific story that is created.

B. A developer can create a Drill-through to a Webpage.

C. One can pass selected data points to the target Drill-through as long as its data source uses the same values.

D. A developer can create Drill-throughs to other dashboards and reports.

E. Each visualization can only have a single Drill-through.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

When a developer needs to share dashboard content with another application, the Share option provides which benefit?

A. the ability to export the dashboard to Excel

B. the ability to generate the HTML to create an iFrame and reference the dashboard

C. the ability to export the dashboard directly to SharePoint.

D. the ability to send a notification to a phone

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

When Insights are turned on what are all of the generated outcomes, depending on the visualization selected ?

A. Average, Predictive Strength, Fit Line, Meaningful Difference and most frequent values

B. Average, Standard Deviation, Best Fit values

C. Average, Max and Min values

D. Top five and Bottom Five values

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

To change the text item in a list column title or the data in the column body of a list object in a report, what first needs to happen?

A. Select the cell and change the data format.

B. Click on the Lock Page Objects icon to unlock the report.

C. Select one of the cells and from the menu click Select Columns Style or Select Columns body style.

D. Select the cell and change the Box Type to None.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The default output Format for a report may be set on which of the following two items?

A. Query

B. Visualization

C. Report

D. Report Folder

E. Report View

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

To display HTML report output directly in the body of an emailed report, which of the following is required in the delivery options pane?

A. Select “Attach the report” and leave the email body blank.

B. Select “Save report”.

C. In the email body, choose “Display a report” and follow the dialog box instructions

D. Select “Include a link to the report\’\’

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

To create a Layout Component Reference in a report, which object property needs to be provided?

A. Conditional Reference

B. Label

C. Name

D. Render Variable

Correct Answer: C


Read More →

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Question 1:

Which of the following is a Linux based operating system for use on mobile devices?

A. iOS

B. CentOS

C. Android

D. Debian

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which function does a shell program serve?

A. It provides a graphical environment.

B. It is responsible for establishing a connection to another computer.

C. It receives user commands and executes them.

D. It is responsible for logging a user into the system.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

What keyword is missing from the following segment of the shell script?

for i in *; _____

cat $i

done

A. do

B. then

C. enod

D. fi

E. run

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following statements may be used to access the second command line argument to a script?

A. “$ARG2”

B. $1

C. “$2”

D. “$1”

E. \’$2\’

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which of the following commands can be used to extract content from a tar file?

A. tar -xvf

B. tar -vf

C. tar -e

D. tar -c

E. tar v

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which of the following hardware devices links a number of computers together to form an Ethernet LAN?

A. Server

B. Switch

C. Connector

D. Access point

E. Terminal

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following commands are used to view memory usage? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. memory

B. top

C. ps

D. free

E. nice

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Which network interface always exists in a Linux system?

A. lo

B. sit0

C. wlan0

D. vlan0

E. eth0

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which statements about the directory /etc/skel are correct? (Choose TWO answers)

A. The personal settings of root are in this directory.

B. The files from the directory are copied to the home directory of the new user when starting the system.

C. The files from the directory are copied to the home directory of a new user when the account is created.

D. The directory contains a default set of configuration files used by the useradd command.

E. The directory contains the global settings for the Linux system.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

Which of the following will change the group that is associated with a file?

A. chmod

B. chmod -w

C. chown

D. ls -g

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

A system administrator creates a custom property called “dept” and assigns it to users and apps. The value of the custom property are department names such as Accounting, Finance, and IT. Users with the same value for “dept” can see and edit each other\’s apps. Users with different values for the property should NOT see each other\’s apps.

Which security rule should the administrator use to meet this requirement?

A. Resource: App_*, Stream_* Conditions: [email protected][email protected]

B. Resource: App_* Conditions: [email protected]=resource.id

C. Resource: App_* Conditions: [email protected][email protected]

D. Resource: App_* Conditions: [email protected]=resource.description

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A user owns an app that was previously published and wants to delete the app in the hub. The user is NOT able to delete the app.

What could be causing this issue?

A. The app is open and is being accessed by another user

B. Published apps can only be deleted from the QMC

C. The user needs to be assigned the RootAdmin role

D. The user needs to be assigned the ContentAdmin role

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.qlik.com/en-US/sense/November2019/Subsystems/Hub/Content/Sense_Hub/Apps/delete-app.htm


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit.

A ContentAdmin user discovers TASK_RELOAD_APP2 fails. The user double-clicks the Failed task to open the Edit reload task screen. There are NO issues found in the Edit reload task screen. The user opens the Operations Monitor app,

and finds an error message in the Task Details sheet:

Message from ReloadProvider: Reload failed in Engine. Check Engine or Script logs.

The Engine log did NOT provide any reason for the failure.

Which is the most efficient method to find the cause of this issue?

A. On the Failed task, click the information icon in the Status field, then click Download script log

B. Navigate to C:\ProgramData\Qlik\Sense\Log, then open and review the most recent file

C. Navigate to C:\Program Files\Qlik\Sense\Logging, then open and review the most recent file

D. In the QMC, select Audit, select Reload Tasks under Target resource, then click Audit and review

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A system administrator must design a Qlik Sense server architecture that meets the following requirements: Approximately 1000 users will be using apps Apps are reloaded outside of office hours The total size of data in all apps will be approximately 600 million rows Apps must be available 24/7

Which architecture meets these requirements in the most cost efficient way?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company recently experienced a merger and needs to integrate new users into the Qlik Sense environment.

A system administrator must make sure that the system sizing and the tokens match the requirements for all employees in the future.

The system administrator learns the following information: 450 active Qlik Sense users before the merger 300 new Qlik Sense users 500 current token licenses Reloads must have the same performance as before the merger The number of apps will approximately double

Management requests an estimate from the system administrator about server resources and additional licenses.

Which set of tools should the system administrator use to meet these requirements?

A. Performance Monitor, Reloads Monitor, Scalability Tools, and License Monitor

B. Performance Monitor, License Monitor, Operations Monitor, and Scalability Tools

C. Performance Monitor, Reloads Monitor, QlikCockpit, and License Monitor

D. Performance Monitor, Reloads Monitor, Operations Monitor, and Scalability Tools

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

A system administrator must set up security that does NOT allow certain users to create objects in published apps. The users that should NOT be able to create objects are in an AD group called LimitedUsers.

Which security rule should the administrator use to meet this requirement?

A. Resource filter: App_* Action: Create Rule Condition: (resource.objectType=”charts” and user.group!=”LimitedUsers”) Context: Both in hub and QMC

B. Resource filter: App.Object_* Action: Create Rule Condition: (resource.objectType=”sheet” and user.group!=”LimitedUsers”) Context: Only in hub

C. Resource filter: App.Object_* Action: Create Rule Condition: (resource.objectType=”charts” and user.group!=”LimitedUsers”) Context: Both in hub and QMC

D. Resource filter: App_* Action: Create Rule Condition: (resource.objectType=”sheet” and user.group!=”LimitedUsers”) Context: Only in hub

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.qlik.com/en-US/sense/June2019/Subsystems/ManagementConsole/Content/Sense_QMC/apply-access-rights-for-user-types.htm


Question 7:

In a Qlik Sense environment, users in the Finance department can successfully log in to the hub open or edit apps in the Finance stream.

Developers in the Finance department are unable to modify the HTML code for widgets.

Where should the system administrator determine the source of this issue?

A. In Audit, select Content libraries as target resource, filter by Group, and select Hub as the environment

B. In Audit, select Extension as target resource, filter by Blocked, and select Hub as the environment

C. In Audit, select App objects as target resource, filter by User directory, and select Hub as the environment

D. In Audit, select Extension as target resource, filter by Group, and select Hub as the environment

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

A system administrator needs to set up a solution for mobile device users to access the Qlik Sense hub. The solution must meet several requirements: Support iOS devices Can be used in remote locations where users do NOT have laptop or desktop computers Ability to access Qlik Sense outside the office network without a compatible tunnel solution Ability to access Qlik Sense using a secure gateway

What should the system administrator do to meet these requirements?

A. Download the QVF and copy it to the mobile devices

B. Copy the SSL certificates to the iOS devices, and then access the hub via a browser

C. Set up access to the Qlik Sense hub via VPN

D. Implement an Enterprise Mobile Management solution

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://help.qlik.com/en-US/sense/June2019/Subsystems/PlanningQlikSenseDeployments/Content/Sense_Deployment/Qlik-Sense-Mobile-architecture.htm


Question 9:

A system administrator is installing and configuring a new Qlik Sense deployment. The system administrator completes the following steps: Makes sure the IT-provisioned server, named Server1, meets the required specifications Installs Qlik Sense on Server1 Tests the installation by opening Qlik Sense from the server desktop shortcut Modifies default virtual proxy prefix to “qliksense” Creates a new virtual proxy for users with a prefix of “QSE” Links the new virtual proxy to the central proxy Configures the new virtual proxy to load balance with the central node Configures the new virtual proxy host white list with the server name, FQDN, and server IP address

When the system administrator tests the new virtual proxy using the URL, http://Server1/sense/hub, this error message displays:

Error 404 The requested resource cannot be found

What is causing this error?

A. The new central proxy was NOT created

B. The incorrect virtual proxy was used in the test

C. The new virtual proxy is configured incorrectly

D. The central proxy was NOT configured correctly

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://support.qlik.com/articles/000009039


Question 10:

A system administrator needs to upgrade the environment to the latest version of Qlik Sense Enterprise and decides to create a backup.

Which three items should the administrator back up? (Choose three.)

A. Qlik Sense certificates

B. Qlik Sense Repository Database

C. Qlik Sense ProgramData files

D. Shared persistence file share

E. Qlik Sense apps

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 11:

A user must connect to a shared folder named “SharedItems” located on Machine1. All users have permission to view the SharedItems folder.

The user maps the Z: drive to access the “Data” folder located under SharedItems. The user tries to create a new data connection to the shared folder. In the Path property section, only “Computer” and the C: and D: drives are available.

What should be entered into the data connection path text box?

A. Z:\Data\

B. \\SharedItems\Data\Machine1

C. \\Machine1\SharedItems\Data D. \\Machine1\Data$\SharedItems

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A user needs to upgrade a published app in the Finance stream. After the changes have been made, the app needs to be moved to the Accounting stream. The user has access to a laptop running Windows 7 (32-bit). The owner of all published apps in the sa_repository user.

Which steps should a system administrator take to efficiently complete this task?

A. 1. Change the app owner to the user to make changes

2.

Add the Accounting tag to the app

3.

Move the app to the Accounting stream

B. 1. Give the user permissions to make changes to the app

2. Move the app to the Accounting stream

C. 1. Export the app to a location for the user to make the changes using Qlik Sense Desktop

2.

Import the app back using QMC after the changes have been made

3.

Publish the app to the Accounting stream

D. 1. Change the app owner to the user to make changes

2. Move the app to the Accounting stream

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

A system administrator has a Qlik Sense environment with a central node and a scheduler node. One of the apps loads data from text files, which are located in the FinanceData folder on the D: drive on the central node.

The system administrator creates a folder data connection and sets Name = Finance Data and Path = D:\FinanceData.

When the reload task runs for the first time, it fails.

What is the cause of the error?

A. The network share is NOT configured yet

B. Resources are limited in the current scheduler node

C. Port 4747 was NOT opened on the central node

D. Access permissions to the FinanceData folder are NOT granted to users

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

A system administrator creates this security rule to keep User1 out of the finance stream:

((user.name!=”User1″))

After conducting an audit on the finance stream, the system administrator notices that the security rule does NOT function as expected.

What is causing this issue?

A. The syntax of the security rule for User1 is NOT correct

B. The resource filter which applies to User1 does NOT include App_* to deny access for every app in the stream

C. Another security rule is allowing User1 Read and Publish permissions

D. UDC synchronization has NOT been performed

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Poor performance has been reported in a Qlik Sense environment. End users are losing connectivity to the system. When end users are eventually able to log in after many attempts, navigation and app consumption is slow. Long response times after each click are also reported.

A system administrator confirms the following: The network is stable and has good throughput The Qlik Sense server is running virtual on dedicated resources with high-end CPUs The number of users in the system has NOT increased The data model has NOT changed The number and size of apps have increased over time

Which combination of tools should be used to diagnose this issue?

A. Governance Dashboard, ipconfig, tracert, Wireshark, and the System Monitor app

B. Process Explorer from Sysinternals, Windows Task Manager, Windows Event Viewer, and the Operations Monitor app

C. Windows Task Manager, Windows Event Viewer, Windows Explorer, and Process Monitor from Sysinternals

D. Wireshark, Disk Usage from Sysinternals, Windows Task Manager, and the Operations Monitor app

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

What are the wavelengths of the OSC channel used by the ST2 board?

A. 1510nm

B. 1491nm

C. 1511nm

D. 1471 nm

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which of the following functions is added to EX40 compared with X40?

A. Monitors the optical power of a single channel.

B. Supports optical-layer cross-connections.

C. Fewer slots are occupied.

D. More multiplexed and demultiplexed wavelengths

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following monitoring boards do not support 1588v2 signal processing and transparent transmission?

A. AST2

B. SC2

C. ST2

D. SC1

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

If the LED indicator value on the SCC board of the OSN 8800 T32 board is 11, which of the following is the subrack ID?

A. Slave subrack 2

B. Slave subrack 1

C. Slave subrack 17

D. Slave subrack 11

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Dispersion compensation is not required for 40Gbit/s and 100 Gbit/s coherent systems because the dispersion tolerance of coherent boards is large. NG WDM products do not support hybrid transmission of non-coherent and coherent networks.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

ESC can also be used at OLA sites.

A. True B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following statements about the modulation technologies of the 40Gbit/s and 100Gbit/s coherent systems are correct?

A. The modulation technology used in a 100G coherent system is ePDM-QPSK.

B. The modulation technology used in a 40G coherent system is ePDM-BPSK.

C. The modulation technology used in a 40G coherent system is ePDM-QPSK.

D. The modulation technology used in a 100G coherent system is ePDM-BPSK.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

In a WDM system, after a distance of transmission, the OSNR of the signals at the receive end decreases to a certain extend. Which of the following is the main cause?

A. Use of EDFA

B. The fiber attenuation is too large.

C. New optical fiber is not used.

D. Use of Demultiplexer Multiplexer

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following ROADM boards have WSS optical modules? (Choose two.)

A. RDU9

B. WSM9

C. WSMD9

D. WSD9

Correct Answer: BD


Question 10:

Which of the following statements about Flexible ROADM is incorrect?

A. Improves spectrum utilization and meets the requirements for flexible scheduling in the 100Gbit/s era.

B. Flexible ROADM is compatible with existing networks.

C. The WSMD2 board supports the Flexible ROADM configuration.

D. The Flexible grid technology can flexibly set bandwidth and support flexible bandwidth allocation and scheduling.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which of the following Optical NE types are defined in U2000?

A. WDM_OEQ

B. WDM_OTM

C. WDM_OLA

D. WDM_OADM

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

When creating new NE, which of the following Configuration Mode can be selected?

A. Initialize and Manually Configure NE Data

B. Download

C. Upload

D. Copy NE Data

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

If OCh trails fail to be created by trail, which are possible causes?

A. There are still alarms that are not cleared on the boards involved in the OCh.

B. The wavelength settings at the source and sink ends are inconsistent.

C. Some fibers are not connected.

D. There is no server trail.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which of the following trails can be configured on the NMS?

A. OTS

B. ODUk

C. client

D. OCh

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

The LOA board can implement the L2 scheduling function of the Ethernet in OSN 1800.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Examine the following partial output from a sniffer command; then answer the question below.

# diagnose sniff packet any `icmp\’ 4

interfaces=[any]

filters=[icmp]

2.101199 wan2 in 192.168.1.110 -> 4.2.2.2: icmp: echo request 2.1011400 wan1 out 172.17.87.16 -> 4.2.2.2: icmp: echo request …..

2.123500 wan2 out 4.2.2.2 -> 192.168.1.110: icmp: echo reply 244 packets received by filter

5 packets dropped by kernel

What is the meaning of the packets dropped counter at the end of the sniffer?

A. Number of packets that didn\’t match the sniffer filter.

B. Number of total packets dropped by the FortiGate.

C. Number of packets that matched the sniffer filter and were dropped by the FortiGate.

D. Number of packets that matched the sniffer filter but could not be captured by the sniffer.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

When does a RADIUS server send an Access-Challenge packet?

A. The server does not have the user credentials yet.

B. The server requires more information from the user, such as the token code for two-factor authentication.

C. The user credentials are wrong.

D. The user account is not found in the server.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

An administrator has enabled HA session synchronization in a HA cluster with two members. Which flag is added to a primary unit\’s session to indicate that it has been synchronized to the secondary unit?

A. redir

B. dirty

C. synced

D. nds

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Examine the output of the \’get router info ospf interface\’ commsnd shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Which statements are true regarding the above output? (Chosse two.)

A. The port4 interface is connected to the OSPF backbone area.

B. The local FortiGate has been elected as the OSPF backup designated router.

C. There are at least 5 OSPF routers connected to the port4 network.

D. Two OSPF routers are down in the port4 nerwork.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Examine the output from the BGP real time debug shown in the exhibit, then the answer the question below:

Which statements are true regarding the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. BGP peers have successfully interchanged Open and Keepalive messages.

B. Local BGP peer received a prefix for a default route.

C. The state of the remote BGP peer is OpenConfirm.

D. The state of the remote BGP peer will go to Connect after it confirms the received prefixes.

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

Which statement is true about mixed mode qtrees?

A. A file with UNIX permissions cannot be updated with a Windows ACL.

B. A file can have both UNIX and Windows permissions.

C. A file permission is either UNIX or Windows.

D. Qtree security style is permanent once set.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Appliance Watch integrates with which three thirdparty applications? (Choose three.)

A. HPOpenView

B. Microsoft Operations Manager

C. IBM Tivoli Enterprise

D. CAUnicenter

E. Veritas CommandCentral Storage

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 3:

Which three requirements do NetApp core data storage systems provide to ensure patient health care data is compliant with health care regulations? (Choose three.)

A. archival

B. security

C. disaster recovery

D. high availability

E. high performance

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 4:

What are two features that NetApp DataFort has that Microsoft\’s free EFS does not? (Choose two.)

A. FIPS hardware key security

B. CryptoShred

C. CryptoLock

D. SANuseraware authentication

Correct Answer: AB


Question 5:

Which two statements are true about SnapVault? (Choose two.)

A. EachSnapVault backup transmits all the volume\’s data from the primary to the secondary.

B. Each full backup consumes only the disk space necessary to store changes from the previous backup.

C. The destination for allSnapVault backups requires a primary license.

D. AllSnapVault backups are readable in a file system format.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

What are the three administrative functions of NetApp SnapManager? (Choose three.)

A. Initialize

B. Archive

C. Restore

D. Backup

E. Configure

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 7:

What are the three functions of Protection Manager? (Choose three.)

A. It discovers all systems withNetApp datasets that are not currently backed up.

B. It notifies when backups are full or approaching a predefined threshold.

C. It provides information onSnapMirror and SnapVault relationships.

D. It provides the ability to managethirdparty storage backups.

E. It manages connections to tape drives and performs tape backup jobs.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 8:

A customer wants to implement a new Microsoft Exchange environment. They have an extensive Ethernet network but no Fibre Channel network in their environment. They want to minimize implementation risk and costs. Which protocol should you recommend to this customer?

A. Fibre Channel

B. NFS

C. iSCSI

D. CIFS

E. Infiniband

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which two NetApp products can be used in a customer\’s existing thirdparty Exchange storage environment? (Choose two.)

A. Single Mailbox Recovery software

B. ReplicatorX

C. SnapManager for Exchange

D. Operations Manager

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

An existing CIFS customer is interested in testing iSCSI, FCP and NFS for a new UNIX database application.

Which two unique capabilities differentiate NetApp from its competitors and should be pointed out to this customer? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp supports CIFS, NFS, iSCSI and FCP all on the same controller.

B. NetApp provides the ability to clone an FCP attached database and attach the clone over iSCSI.

C. NetApp ReplicatorX provides the ability to nondisruptively migrate CIFS data to NFS for databases.

D. NetApp supports running databases over CIFS, NFS, iSCSI and FCP.

E. NetApp provides the ability to nondisruptively grow and shrink the storage for an NFS mounted database.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

NetAppstorage is used as a networkmapped drive for a user\’s home directory, and a scheduled Snapshot occurs. Afterwards, the user opens a file named netapp.dat that contains three data blocks: A, B, and C. The user modifies the last block in the file, then saves it as C\’, so that the updated file consists of blocks A, B and C\’. A second Snapshot then occurs.

Which allocated blocks related to netapp.dat are referred to by the second Snapshot?

A. C

B. A, B, C\’

C. A, B, C, C\’

D. C\’

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

In a consolidated storage environment, which product provides the ability to set levels of priorities for different workloads?

A. FlexCache

B. FlexShare

C. FlexClone

D. FlexVol

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Multipath HA Storage provides protection against what three storage faults? (Choose three.)

A. shelf to shelf cable failure

B. shelf IO module failure

C. HBA port failure

D. shelf backplane failure

E. triple disk failure in an aggregate

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 14:

A NetApp NearStore VTL provides _____. (Choose two.)

A. efficient tape creation

B. automatic performance optimization

C. hourly Snapshot creation

D. a destination for Open SystemSnapVault clients

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

Which feature of the NearStore VTL solution enables it to useup to 50% fewer physical tapes than other VTLs?

A. shadow tapes

B. tape smart sizing

C. self tuning

D. tape compressor

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

The SuccessFactors (SFSF) adapter supports which of the following message protocols? Choose the correct answers.

A. Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)

B. OData

C. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)

D. Representational State Transfer (REST)

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 2:

What is the correlation of a Technical System of type SAP AS ABAP and its Business Systems in SLD? Please choose the correct answer.

A. Each Client is defined as a separate Business System.

B. Each Business Component is assigned to one Technical System.

C. Each Business System has several Technical Systems.

D. Each Technical System acts as one Business System.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

What is assigned to an automated activity? Choose the correct answers.

A. Operations

B. Roles

C. Service definitions

D. Task

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

The Enterprise Service Repository (ESR) within the software component version stores detailed information about the …of a software component. Choose the correct answer.

A. External interfaces

B. Internal interfaces

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following are reusable objects in Business Process Management (BPM)? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question. A Message types

A. Data types

B. Service interfaces

C. Rules and functions

D. Operation mapping

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 6:

When an integration flow is complete, it is deployed to the runtime, where the actual execution of… takes place. Choose the correct answer.

A. a classic integration

B. a process integration

C. an integrated integration

D. an extended integration

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What do business rules define? Choose the correct answer.

A. A set application tasks and sequencing.

B. A set of restrictions placed on te process model.

C. A set of conditions with associated actions.

D. A set of standard practices and policies.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which of the following service interfaces are implemented using Java? Choose the correct answers.

A. ValueMappingReplication

B. ValueMappingReplicationOut

C. ValueMappingReplicationSynchronous

D. ValueMappingReplicationOutSynchronous

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

The Java component SLD data supplier is deployed and started for the SAP NetWeaver AS Java server. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

If you modify a mapping template after it has been references in a message mapping, the change is automatically transferred to the message mapping. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following work areas are included in operation management? Choose the correct answer.

A. Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI) browser

B. Data archiving cockpit

C. Java class loader viewer

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

The … acts as a central point of information for all interfaces. Choose the correct answer.

A. Software component

B. Enterprise Services Repository (ESR)

C. Imported object

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What do Business Rules represent?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. They represent application business rules of an organization.

B. They represent the constraints on behavior of the business.

C. They represent a set of standard business practices.

D. They represent a static component of any business.

E. They represent the guidelines and core business logic.

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 14:

For the Java development environment, the proxy objects are generated directly in the ESR as a Java archive and this is then made available to the Java server. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which of the following technical system types can you enter in the SLD? Select all that apply. Choose the correct answers.

A. AS ABAP

B. AS JAVA

C. TREX

D. Third-party systems

Correct Answer: ABD


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Question 1:

You need to recommend a solution for the collection of security logs for the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure Event Hubs

B. Azure Notification Hubs

C. the Azure Diagnostics agent

D. the Microsoft Monitoring agent

Correct Answer: C

Scenario: Collect Windows security logs from all the middle-tier servers and retain the logs for a period of seven years.

The Azure Diagnostics agent should be used when you want to archive logs and metrics to Azure storage.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/agents-overview


Question 2:

You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the back-end tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendations?

A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption

B. Transparent Date Encryption (TDE)

C. Azure Storage Service Encryption

D. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

You need to recommend a backup solution for the data store of the payment processing. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)

B. long-term retention

C. a Recovery Services vault

D. Azure Backup Server

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-long-term-backup-retention-configure


Question 4:

You need to recommend a disaster recovery solution for the back-end tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Always On Failover Cluster Instances

B. active geo-replication

C. Azure Site Recovery

D. an auto-failover group

Correct Answer: D

Scenario:

1.

The back-end data store is implemented as a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 database.

2.

If a data center fails, ensure that the payment processing system remains available without any administrative intervention.

Note: Auto-failover groups is a SQL Database feature that allows you to manage replication and failover of a group of databases on a SQL Database server or all databases in a managed instance to another region. It is a declarative abstraction on top of the existing active geo-replication feature, designed to simplify deployment and management of geo-replicated databases at scale.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-auto-failover-group


Question 5:

You need to recommend a backup solution for the data store of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)

B. Azure SQL long-term backup retention

C. Azure Backup Server

D. a Recovery Services vault

E. Azure Managed Disks

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-long-term-backup-retention-configure


Question 6:

You need to recommend a high-availability solution for the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. availability zones

B. an availability set

C. the Premium App Service plan

D. the Isolated App Server plan

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You have an on-premises Active Directory forest and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All Azure AD users are assigned a Premium P1 license.

You deploy Azure AD Connect.

Which two features are available in this environment that can reduce operational overhead for your company\’s help desk? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management policies

B. access reviews

C. self-service password reset

D. Microsoft Cloud App Security Conditional Access App Control

E. password writeback

Correct Answer: CE


Question 8:

You need to recommend a solution to generate a monthly report of all the new Azure Resource Manager resource deployments in your subscription. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure Analysis Services

B. Azure Activity Log

C. Azure Monitor action groups

D. Azure Advisor

E. Azure Monitor metrics

F. Azure Log Analytics

G. Application Insights

Correct Answer: B

Through activity logs, you can determine:

1.

what operations were taken on the resources in your subscription

2.

who started the operation

3.

when the operation occurred

4.

the status of the operation

5.

the values of other properties that might help you research the operation

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-audit


Question 9:

You plan to deploy 200 Microsoft SQL Server databases to Azure by using Azure SQL Database and Azure SQL Database Managed Instance.

You need to recommend a monitoring solution that provides a consistent monitoring approach for all deployments. The solution must meet the following requirements:

1.

Support current-state analysis based on metrics collected near real-time, multiple times per minute, and maintained for up to one hour

2.

Support longer term analysis based on metrics collected multiple times per hour and maintained for up to two weeks.

3.

Support monitoring of the number of concurrent logins and concurrent sessions. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. dynamic management views

B. trace flags

C. Azure Monitor

D. SQL Server Profiler

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

You are designing an Azure web app.

You need to ensure that users who have impaired vision can use the app.

Which reference material should you use when designing the app?

A. Accessibility in Windows Dev Center

B. Azure Application Architecture Guide

C. Web Content Accessibility Guidelines

D. Cloud Application Architecture Guide

Correct Answer: C

How Microsoft integrates accessibility

Microsoft\’s obligation to accessibility is guided by three main principles: transparency, inclusivity and accountability. In developing our products and services, we take into account leading global accessibility standards, including:

EN 301 549

U.S. Section 508

Web Content Accessibility Guidelines (WCAG)

References:

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/trust-center/compliance/accessibility


Question 11:

You are designing an Azure solution.

The network traffic for the solution must be securely distributed by providing the following features:

1.

HTTPS protocol

2.

Round robin routing

3.

SSL offloading

You need to recommend a load balancing option.

What should you recommend?

A. Azure Load Balancer

B. Azure Traffic Manager

C. Azure Internal Load Balancer (ILB)

D. Azure Application Gateway

Correct Answer: D

If you are looking for Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol termination (“SSL offload”) or per-HTTP/HTTPS request, application-layer processing, review Application Gateway.

Application Gateway is a layer 7 load balancer, which means it works only with web traffic (HTTP, HTTPS, WebSocket, and HTTP/2). It supports capabilities such as SSL termination, cookie-based session affinity, and round robin for load-balancing traffic. Load Balancer load-balances traffic at layer 4 (TCP or UDP).

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-faq


Question 12:

A partner manages on-premises and Azure environments. The partner deploys an on-premises solution that needs to use Azure services. The partner deploys a virtual appliance.

All network traffic that is directed to a specific subnet must flow through the virtual appliance.

You need to recommend solutions to manage network traffic.

Which two options should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Configure Azure Traffic Manager

B. Implement an Azure virtual network

C. Configure a routing table with forced tunneling

D. Implement Azure ExpressRoute

Correct Answer: CD

C: Forced tunneling lets you redirect or “force” all Internet-bound traffic back to your on-premises location via a Site-to-Site VPN tunnel for inspection and auditing. This is a critical security requirement for most enterprise IT policies. Without forced tunneling, Internet-bound traffic from your VMs in Azure always traverses from Azure network infrastructure directly out to the Internet, without the option to allow you to inspect or audit the traffic.

Forced tunneling in Azure is configured via virtual network user-defined routes.

D: ExpressRoute lets you extend your on-premises networks into the Microsoft cloud over a private connection facilitated by a connectivity provider. With ExpressRoute, you can establish connections to Microsoft cloud services, such as Microsoft Azure, Office 365, and Dynamics 365.

Connectivity can be from an any-to-any (IP VPN) network, a point-to-point Ethernet network, or a virtual cross-connection through a connectivity provider at a co-location facility. ExpressRoute connections do not go over the public Internet. This allows ExpressRoute connections to offer more reliability, faster speeds, lower latencies, and higher security than typical connections over the Internet.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-forced-tunneling-rm

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/expressroute/expressroute-introduction


Question 13:

Note: This question is a part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing.

The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources.

You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.

Solution: Create an Azure Batch application that runs the image processing application every hour.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead use an Azure Logic Apps, which helps you automate workflows that run on a schedule.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/tutorial-build-schedule-recurring-logic-app-workflow


Question 14:

You need to recommend a solution to generate a monthly report of all the new Azure Resource Manager resource deployments in your subscription. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. the Change Tracking management solution

B. Azure Activity Log

C. Azure Monitor action groups

D. Azure Advisor

Correct Answer: B

The Azure Activity Log provides insight into subscription-level events that have occurred in Azure. This includes a range of data, from Azure Resource Manager operational data to updates on Service Health events.

Activity logs are kept for 90 days. You can query for any range of dates, as long as the starting date isn\’t more than 90 days in the past.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-audit


Question 15:

Note: This question is a part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are designing a storage solution to support on-premises resources and Azure-hosted resources.

You need to provide on-premises storage that has built-in replication to Azure.

Solution: You include Azure Table Storage in the design.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


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