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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

Network administrators need to set up a WLAN that uses WPA2 encryption and authenticates users with a preshared key (PSK) that is the same for all users. Administrators do not see where they should specify the option for the preshared

key.

What should the administrators do?

A. Click Personal in the slide bar.

B. Click the icon in the Authentication server section

C. Return to the first page in the wizard and select the guest option

D. Configure an L3 authentication profile after the WLAN wizard is complete

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows output from a Mobility Master (MM) dashboard. What is a valid reason for the administrator to click the akamai square under applications?

A. to create filter rules in order to control wireless user access to this application

B. to download a report about the usage of this application over time

C. to see more details about this application, such as a list of aggregated sessions

D. to see the break down for only roles, destinations, WLANs and devices that use this application

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is a requirement for the Dashboard > Traffic Analysis window on the Aruba Mobility Master (MM) to show data?

A. Airmatch and ClientMatch must be enabled.

B. The solution must have active PEFNG licenses.

C. Firewall policies must include application filtering rules.

D. WLANs must use the decrypt-tunnel forwarding option.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

How can network administrators upgrade AirMatch on an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)?

A. Upgrade Client Match as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade AirMatch separately as a loadable service module (LSM).

B. Upgrade Client Match and AirMatch separately as loadable service modules (LSMs).

C. Upgrade AirMatch and Client Match through a global software upgrade.

D. Upgrade AirMatch as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade Client Match separately as a loadable service module (LSM).

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

An AP operates on channel 6. Which device causes the most significant and consistent interference with the signal?

A. cellular phone

B. weather radar

C. wireless security camera operating on channel 8

D. AP operating on channel 11

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, what is the maximum number of APs that this Mobility Master (MM) solution can support?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 32

D. 500

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A network administrator needs to create an Aruba firewall rule that permits wireless users to receive DHCP settings when they first connect to the Aruba solution. What are the correct source and destination aliases for the rule?

A. source = any and destination = user

B. source = any and destination = any

C. source = user and destination = user

D. source = user and destination = any

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A network administrator wants to implement MAC filtering for the wireless network of a local financial firm to ensure that only employees can access the wireless network. What is a potential weakness of this solution?

A. MAC filters cannot be applied with WPA2 encryption.

B. Authorized MAC addresses are visible in plaintext in the air and can be easily spoofed.

C. Many popular clients do not have the capability to connect to WLANs that use MAC filters.

D. MAC filters offer no protection against authorized users who try to connect unauthorized devices.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which type of authentication server should administrators select to authenticate users to a ClearPass server?

A. Windows

B. RADIUS

C. TACACS

D. LDAP

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

A network administrator wants to use unique digital certificates installed on user devices to authenticate wireless users. Which EAP method should the RADIUS server and clients support?

A. PEAP and MS-CHAPv2

B. EAP-TLS

C. EAP-TTLS and MS-CHAPv2

D. LEAP

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

A company has an Aruba solution. The company wants to host a guest login portal with this solution, and the login portal must gie guests the option to create their own login accounts. How can a network administrator help meet these criteria?

A. Choose the Internal captive portal with email registration option for the guest WLAN.

B. Make sure to create a guest provisioning account for the guest WLAN.

C. Disable authentication in the captive portal profile for the guest WLAN.

D. Choose ClearPass or the other external captive portal option for the guest WLAN.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A network administrator needs to configure firewall rules for three roles:

1.

Finance

2.

Sales

3.

Employee

Several rules apply to both the Employee and Sales roles, but not to the Finance role. What is the simplest way to configure these rules?

A. Define the Employee and Sales roles as internal roles, and then configure the rules as global rules for internal users.

B. Apply these rules as a subnet-based policy, and then ensure that only Employee and Sales users are assigned IP addresses in that subnet.

C. Select either the Employee or Sales role, and then configure these rules within the global policy.

D. Create a policy with these rules, and then apply that policy to the Employee and Sales roles.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows output from a Mobility Master (MM) dashboard. What does the health status indicate?

A. It takes the AP about twice as long to send data to the client as expected if all transmissions succeeded.

B. About half of the heartbeats the client sends reaches the Mobility Manager (MM).

C. The maximum data rate that 802.11ac supports is about twice as high as the data rate the client uses.

D. The client device only complies with about half of the rules in the endpoint health policy.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A network administrator creates the role employees and adds the rule to it:

user any any permit

The first several wireless clients assigned to the employees role are assigned IP addresses in the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet. Several other wireless clients with the employees role are then assigned IP addresses in the 10.10.20.0/24.

When the Aruba firewall matches traffic from these clients to the user any any permit rule, what does it do?

A. It drops traffic from wireless clients in both the 10.10.0/24 subnet and 10.10.20.0/24 subnet.

B. It permits traffic from wireless clients in both the 10.10.10.0/24 and 10.10.20.0/24 subnet as long as the packet has a source IP.

C. It permits the traffic from wireless clients in the 10.10.20.0/24 subnet, but drops the traffic from wireless clients in the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet.

D. It permits the traffic from wireless clients in the 10.10.0/24 subnet, but drops the traffic from wireless clients in the 10.10.20.0/24 subnet.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A company has a single Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution with two Mobility Controllers (MCs). Network administrators want APs in building 1 to support a WLAN but do not want APs in building 2 to support the WLAN. How can administrator ensure that they can enforce this rule as they set up the WLAN in the Mobility Master (MM) Interface?

A. Place APs in different buildings in different AP Groups.

B. Assign APs in different buildings to different MM nodes.

C. Configure APs in different buildings to use different frequency bands.

D. Assign different radio profiles to APs in different buildings.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

View the exhibit, which contains the partial output of an IKE real-time debug, and then answer the question below.

Which statements about this debug output are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The remote gateway IP address is 10.0.0.1.

B. It shows a phase 1 negotiation.

C. The negotiation is using AES128 encryption with CBC hash.

D. The initiator has provided remote as its IPsec peer ID.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit, which contains the partial output of a diagnose command.

Based on the output, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Anti-replay is enabled

B. The remote gateway IP is 10.200.4.1.

C. DPD is disabled.

D. Quick mode selectors are disabled.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit, which shows the output of a debug command.

Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)

A. The local FortiGate OSPF router ID is 0.0.0.4.

B. Port4 is connected to the OSPF backbone area.

C. In the network connected to port4, two OSPF routers are down.

D. The local FortiGate is the backup designated router.

Correct Answer: AB

Area 0.0.0.0 is the backbone area.


Question 4:

View the IPS exit log, and then answer the question below.

# diagnose test application ipsmonitor 3

ipsengine exit log”

pid = 93 (cfg), duration = 5605322 (s) at Wed Apr 19 09:57:26 2017

code = 11, reason: manual

What is the status of IPS on this FortiGate?

A. IPS engine memory consumption has exceeded the model-specific predefined value.

B. IPS daemon experienced a crash.

C. There are communication problems between the IPS engine and the management database.

D. All IPS-related features have been disabled in FortiGate\’s configuration.

Correct Answer: D

The command diagnose test application ipsmonitor includes many options that are useful for troubleshooting purposes.Option 3 displays the log entries generated every time an IPS engine process stopped. There are various reasons why these logs are generated:Manual: Because of the configuration, IPS no longer needs to run (that is, all IPS-releated features have been disabled)


Question 5:

View the exhibit, which contains the output of diagnose sys session stat, and then answer the question below.

Which statements are correct regarding the output shown? (Choose two.)

A. There are 0 ephemeral sessions.

B. All the sessions in the session table are TCP sessions.

C. No sessions have been deleted because of memory pages exhaustion.

D. There are 166 TCP sessions waiting to complete the three-way handshake.

Correct Answer: AC

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD40578


Question 6:

An administrator has configured the following CLI script on FortiManager, which failed to apply any changes to the managed device after being executed.

Why didn\’t the script make any changes to the managed device?

A. Commands that start with the # sign are not executed.

B. CLI scripts will add objects only if they are referenced by policies.

C. Incomplete commands are ignored in CLI scripts.

D. Static routes can only be added using TCL scripts.

Correct Answer: A

https://help.fortinet.com/fmgr/50hlp/56/5-6-2/FortiManager_Admin_Guide/1000_Device% 20Manager/2400_Scripts/1000_Script sa mples/0200_CLI scripts .htm#Error_Messages

A sequence of FortiGate CLI commands, as you would type them at the command line. A comment line starts with the number sign (#). A comment line will not be executed.


Question 7:

View the exhibit, which contains the output of a debug command, and then answer the question below.

Which of the following statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)

A. In the network on port4, two OSPF routers are down.

B. Port4 is connected to the OSPF backbone area.

C. The local FortiGate\’s OSPF router ID is 0.0.0.4

D. The local FortiGate has been elected as the OSPF backup designated router.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 8:

What configuration changes can reduce the memory utilization in a FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. Reduce the session time to live.

B. Increase the TCP session timers.

C. Increase the FortiGuard cache time to live.

D. Reduce the maximum file size to inspect.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 9:

Which statement about memory conserve mode is true?

A. A FortiGate exits conserve mode when the configured memory use threshold reaches yellow.

B. A FortiGate starts dropping all the new and old sessions when the configured memory use threshold reaches extreme.

C. A FortiGate starts dropping new sessions when the configured memory use threshold reaches red

D. A FortiGate enters conserve mode when the configured memory use threshold reaches red

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

The CLI command set intelligent-mode controls the IPS engine\’s adaptive scanning behavior. Which of the following statements describes IPS adaptive scanning?

A. Determines the optimal number of IPS engines required based on system load.

B. Downloads signatures on demand from FDS based on scanning requirements.

C. Determines when it is secure enough to stop scanning session traffic.

D. Choose a matching algorithm based on available memory and the type of inspection being performed.

Correct Answer: C

Configuring IPS intelligenceStarting with FortiOS 5.2, intelligent-mode is a new adaptive detection method. This command is enabled the default and it means that the IPS engine will perform adaptive scanning so that, for some traffic, the FortiGate can quickly finish scanning and offload the traffic to NPU or kernel. It is a balanced method which could cover all known exploits. When disabled, the IPS engine scans every single byte.config ips globalset intelligent-mode {enable|disable}end


Question 11:

Which two statements about the Security Fabric are true? (Choose two.)

A. Only the root FortiGate collects network information and forwards it to FortiAnalyzer.

B. FortiGate uses FortiTelemetry protocol to communicate with FortiAnalyzer.

C. All FortiGate devices in the Security Fabric must have bidirectional FortiTelemetry connectivity.

D. Branch FortiGate devices must be configured first.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/327890/deploying-security-fabric


Question 12:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding application layer test commands? (Choose two.)

A. They are used to filter real-time debugs.

B. They display real-time application debugs.

C. Some of them display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process.

D. Some of them can be used to restart an application.

Correct Answer: CD

Application layer test commands don\’t display info in real time, but they do show statistics and configuration info about a feature or process. You can also use some of these commands to restart a process or execute a change in its operation.


Question 13:

View the exhibit, which contains the output of a diagnose command, and the answer the question below.

Which statements are true regarding the Weight value?

A. Its initial value is calculated based on the round trip delay (RTT).

B. Its initial value is statically set to 10.

C. Its value is incremented with each packet lost.

D. It determines which FortiGuard server is used for license validation.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What is the purpose of an internal segmentation firewall (ISFW)?

A. It inspects incoming traffic to protect services in the corporate DMZ.

B. It is the first line of defense at the network perimeter.

C. It splits the network into multiple security segments to minimize the impact of breaches.

D. It is an all-in-one security appliance that is placed at remote sites to extend the enterprise network.

Correct Answer: C

ISFW splits your network into multiple security segments. They serve as a breach containers from attacks that come from inside.


Question 15:

View the global IPS configuration, and then answer the question below.

Which of the following statements is true regarding this configuration?

A. IPS will scan every byte in every session.

B. FortiGate will spawn IPS engine instances based on the system load.

C. New packets will be passed through without inspection if the IPS socket buffer runs out of memory.

D. IPS will use the faster matching algorithm which is only available for units with more than 4 GB memory.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Customer\’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

A. Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B. CPUSE online upgrade

C. CPUSE offline upgrade

D. SmartUpdate upgrade

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A. Slow path

B. Firewall path

C. Medium path

D. Accelerated path

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

A. Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B. Proactively detects threats

C. Delivers file with original content

D. Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

A. SmartView Monitor

B. SmartEventWeb

C. There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D. SmartView

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

A. When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta

B. When an interface fails the delta claims the priority

C. When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority

D. When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/87911.htm


Question 6:

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A. Incoming

B. Internal

C. External

D. Outgoing

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

A. Security policy

B. Inbound chain

C. Outbound chain

D. Decryption is not supported

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

A. restore_backup

B. import backup

C. cp_merge

D. migrate import

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk54100#1.1.1


Question 9:

What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

A. Use 1 cluster 1st sync

B. Use 1 dedicated sync interface

C. Use 3 clusters 1st sync 2nd sync 3rd sync

D. Use 2 clusters 1st sync 2nd sync

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

A. No, only one can be connected

B. Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C. Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators

D. Yes, but only one has the right to write

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/124265


Question 11:

What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

A. Endpoint Security Client

B. Full Agent

C. Light Agent

D. System Agent

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/62838


Question 12:

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don\’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

A. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9 C. fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D. fw ctl miltik pq enable

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

What is the SOLR database for?

A. Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

B. Writes data to the database and full text search

C. Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

D. Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apache_Solr


Question 14:

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

A. cphaprob state

B. cphaprob status

C. cphaprob

D. cluster state

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm


Question 15:

Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

A. Security Gateway

B. Management container

C. Management server

D. Security Gateway container

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk80840


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Question 1:

You want to configure the automatic data transfer from an SAP System Landscape Directory (SLD) to the SAP Solution Manager system. Which of the following configuration steps are necessary? (Choose two)

A. On the SLD system, you need to configure the JCo RFC Provider Service in Visual Administrator.

B. On the SAP Solution Manager system you need to schedule a periodic data transfer job (Job LANDSCAPE_FETCH). This can be done in transaction SMSY_SETUP.

C. On the SLD system, you need to trigger an event that starts the data transfer to the SAP Solution Manager system (event START_TRANSFER).

D. On the SAP Solution Manager system, you need to create a trusted RFC connection of Type “3” to the SLD.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

What should be done before releasing a transport request in the development system?

A. Unit testing

B. Release of all tasks inside the transport request

C. Information of system administration about the released tasks

D. Deletion of tasks inside the transport request

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

Which of the following are existing variants of SAP GUI? (Choose three)

A. SAP GUI for Linux

B. SAP GUI for Windows

C. SAP GUI for Java

D. SAP GUI for HTML

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 4:

How many CCMS Alert Monitoring Infrastructure consists?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 5

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Before you stop the system, which of the following status check you have to do?

A. Check which jobs are active using the Job Overview (SM37)

B. Use the Update Overview (SM13) to check whether update processes are terminated by the system stop

C. Start the instances

D. Check which users are logged on using the User List (SM04).

E. Before you stop your system, you should inform users using a system message (SM02)

F. The stopping of the SAP system is performed in the same order of starting

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 6:

Which are different installation options for SAP NetWeaver AS?

A. SAP NetWeaver AS Java

B. SAP NetWeaver AS Microsoft .NET

C. SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP

D. SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP Java

Correct Answer: BC


Question 7:

The SAP Web Dispatcher is delivered with Central Services (enqueue service and message service). In the standard installation, you will find this in the directory (Please choose one correct answer)

A. /usr/sap//SCS01/trans

B. /usr/sap//SCS01/run

C. /usr/sap//SCS01/exe.

D. /usr/sap//SCS01/work.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

The customer has decided to implement a three system landscape for SAP ECC 6.0. A lot of customizing and development work must be done before the SAP landscape goes live. Someone has recommended using virtual systems in the beginning, instead of buying physical hardware. Which statements regarding virtual systems are true? (Choose three)

A. Virtual systems are used to save money in the beginning of a project. Another side-effect is that the productive SAP system can always be installed on the newest hardware technology.

B. Virtual systems are mainly used to simulate the correctness of transport routes.

C. The of the virtual system should be the same as the planned physical system.

D. Virtual systems are used in the transport environment like physical systems. Transport buffers, command files and data files are created.

E. Virtual systems in the SAP transport environment are only used together with hypervisor technologies from different third-party vendors.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 9:

Which features are created automatically once you define a transport domain controller in an (ABAP-based) SAP landscape? (Choose four)

A. The transport profile for the transport control program tp is generated in the file system.

B. The TMS configuration is stored in the database and the file system.

C. The transport profile for the transport control program tp is generated in the database.

D. The user TMSADM is created.

E. The RFC destinations required for the TMS are generated.

Correct Answer: ABDE


Question 10:

tp commands are executed in the transport subdirectory (Please choose one correct answer)

A. Bin

B. log

C. BUFFER

D. EPS

E. COFILES

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

An instance of an AS ABAP-based SAP system switches to an operation mode in which fewer background work processes are configured.

What happens if all background work processes are working on background jobs at the time the operation mode switch should be executed?

A. The active background jobs are allowed to finish the current work and the operation mode switch is cancelled.

B. The active background work jobs are allowed to finish the current work.

C. The active background jobs are terminated.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

The message service performs the following tasks in the Java cluster:(More than one answers are true)

A. Guaranteed message transmission

B. The applications can lock objects are release locks again.

C. Communication between different services

D. Forwarding of messages and requests to all participants (broadcast)

E. Support for message server failover

F. It manages the lock table in the main memory and receives requests for setting or releasing 1 locks.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 13:

Which tools in the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.00 ABAP and Java Stack are responsible for the registration process in the System Landscape Directory (SLD)? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The whole mechanism to register an ABAP based SAP system is event triggered. Once a change in the configuration happens, a background job informs the SLD.

B. The transaction RZ21 allows the configuration of the SLD connection.

C. SAP systems based on AS Java can register to the SLD using the SLD Data Supplier Service in Visual Administrator.

D. The main ABAP transaction to inform the SLD is RZ70. The SAP gateway is involved.

E. SAP systems based on AS Java cannot register to the SLD.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

Which performance optimization tasks can be performed by configuring Automatic Table Maintenance (ATM) in DBACOCKPIT? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Archive tables based on thresholds.

B. Perform complete online reorganization `REORG REBUILD\’ of tables.

C. Reorganize tables using row forwarding.

D. Update index statistics.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 15:

With which of the following transactions can you activate a trace for SQL statements in the SAP system? (More than one answers are true)

A. System log

B. Performance trace

C. (SAP) system trace

D. Database performance analysis

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

A Citrix Architect can execute a configuration job using a DeployMasterConfiguration template on a NetScaler_________deployed_________. (Choose the correct option to complete sentence.)

A. CPX; as part of a high availability pair

B. CPX; as a stand alone device

C. SDX; with less than 6 partitions and dedicated management interface

D. MPX; as part of the cluster but Cluster IP is NOT configured

E. SDX; with no partitions as a stand alone device

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Scenario: Based on a discussion between a Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members, the MPX Logical layout for Workspacelab has been created across three (3) sites.

The requirements captured during the design discussion held for a NetScaler design project are as follows:

1.

Two (2) pairs of NetScaler MPX appliances deployed in the DMZ and internal network.

2.

High Availability will be accessible for each NetScaler MPX

3.

The external NetScaler MPX appliance will be deployed in multi-arm mode.

4.

The internal NetScaler MPX will be deployed in single-arm mode wherein it will be connected to Cisco ACI Fabric.

5.

All three (3) Workspacelab sites: Dc, NDR and DR, will have similar NetScaler configurations and design.

How many NetScaler MPX appliances should the architect deploy at each site to meet the design requirements above?

A. 4

B. 12

C. 6

D. 2

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members met to discuss a NetScaler design project. They captured the following requirements from this design discussion:

1.

A pair of NetScaler MPX appliances will be deployed in the DMZ network.

2.

High Availability will be accessible in the NetScaler MPX in the DMZ Network.

3.

Load balancing should be performed for the internal network services like Microsoft Exchange Client Access Services and Microsoft App-V.

4.

The load balancing should be performed for StoreFront.

5.

The NetScaler Gateway virtual server will be utilizing the StoreFront load-balancing virtual server.

6.

The NetScaler Gateway virtual server and StoreFront.

7.

The NetScaler Gateway virtual service and StoreFront and load-balancing services are publicly accessible.

8.

The traffic for internal and external services must be isolated.

Click the Exhibit button to review the logical network diagram.

Which two design decisions are incorrect based on these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. LB StoreFront bound to traffic Domain 0

B. NetScaler Gateway VIP bound to Traffic Domain 1

C. LB APP-V bound to Traffic Domain 1

D. SNIP 192.168.20.2 bound to Traffic Domain 1

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to deploy SAML integration between NetScaler (Identity Provider) and ShareFile (Service Provider). The design requirements for SAML setup are as follows:

1.

NetScaler must be deployed as the Identity Provider (IDP).

2.

ShareFile server must be deployed as the SAML Service Provider (SP).

3.

The users in domain workspacelab.com must be able to perform Single Sign-on to ShareFile after authenticating at the NetScaler.

4.

The User ID must be UserPrincipalName.

5.

The User ID and Password must be evaluated by NetScaler against the Active Directory servers SFO-ADS-001 and SFO-ADS-002.

6.

After successful authentication, NetScaler creates a SAML Assertion and passes it back to ShareFile.

7.

Single Sign-on must be performed.

8.

SHA 1 algorithm must be utilized.

The verification environment details are as follows:

1.

Domain Name: workspacelab.com

2.

NetScaler AAA virtual server URL https://auth.workspacelab.com

3.

ShareFile URL https://sharefile.workspacelab.com

Which SAML IDP action will meet the design requirements?

A. add authentication samIIdPProfile SAMI-IDP -samISPCertName Cert_1 -samIIdPCertName Cert_2 -assertionConsimerServiceURL “https://auth.workspacelab.com/samIIssueName auth.workspacelab.com -signatureAlg RSA-SHA256digestMethod SHA256-encryptAssertion ON -serviceProviderUD sharefile.workspacelad.com

B. add authentication samIIdPProfile SAMI-IDP -samISPCertName Cert_1 -samIIdPCertName Cert_2 -assertionConsimerServiceURL https://sharefile.workspacelab.com/saml/acs” -samIIssuerName sharefile.workspacelab.com signatureAlg RSA-SHA256 -digestMethod SHA256 -serviceProviderID sharefile.workspacelab.com

C. add authentication samIIdPProfile SAMI-IDP -samISPCertName Cert_1 -samIIdPCertName Cert_2 -assertionConsimerServiceURL https://sharefile.workspacelab.com/saml/acs” -samIIssuerName auth.workspacelab.com -signatureAlg RSA-SHA1-digestMethod SHA1 -encryptAssertion ON -serviceProviderID sharefile.workspacelab.com

D. add authentication samIIdPProfile SAMI-IDP -samISPCertName Cert_1 -samIIdPCertName Cert_2 -assertionConsimerServiceURL https://sharefile.workspacelab.com/saml/acs” -samIIssuerName sharefile.workspacelab.com signatureAlg RSA-SHA1 -digestMethod SHA1 -encryptAssertion ON -serviceProviderID sharefile.workspacelab.com

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which markup language can a Citrix use along with NITRO API to create a StyleBook?

A. GML

B. XML

C. HTML

D. YAML

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler-mas/12/stylebooks/how-to-create-your-own-stylebooks.html


Question 6:

Scenario: The Workspacelab team has configured their NetScaler Management and Analytics (NMAS) environment. A Citrix Architect needs to log on to the NMAS to check the settings. Which two authentication methods are supported to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Certificate

B. RADIUS

C. TACACS

D. Director

E. SAML

F. AAA

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler-mas/12/authentication-and-rbac/configuring.html


Question 7:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect has configured NetScaler Gateway integration with a XenApp environment to provide access to users from two domains: vendorlab.com and workslab.com. The Authentication method used is LDAP. Which two steps are required to achieve Single Sign-on StoreFront using a single store? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Single sign-on domain in Session profile `userPrincipalName\’.

B. Do NOT configure SSO Name attribute in LDAP Profile.

C. Do NOT configure sign-on domain in Session Profile.

D. Configure SSO Name attribute to `userPrincipalName\’ in LDAP Profile.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/storefront/3-12/plan/user-authentication.html


Question 8:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess a NetScaler Gateway deployment that was recently completed by a customer and is currently in pre-production testing. The NetScaler Gateway needs to use ICA proxy to provide access to a XenApp and XenDesktop environment. During the assessment, the customer informs the architect that users are NOT able to launch published resources using the Gateway virtual server.

Click the Exhibit button to view the troubleshooting details collected by the customer.

What is the cause of this issue?

A. The required ports have NOT been opened on the firewall between the NetScaler gateway and the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines.

B. The StoreFront URL configured in the NetScaler gateway session profile is incorrect.

C. The Citrix License Server is NOT reachable.

D. The Secure Ticket Authority (STA) servers are load balanced on the NetScaler.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a hybrid XenApp and XenApp and XenDesktop environment which will include Citrix Cloud as well as resource locations in on-premises datacenter and Microsoft Azure.

Organizational details and requirements are as follows:

1.

Active XenApp and XenDesktop Service subscription

2.

No existing NetScaler deployment

3.

About 3,000 remote users are expected to regularly access the environment

4.

Multi-factor authentication should be used for all external connections

5.

Solution must provide load balancing for backend application servers

6.

Load-balancing services must be in Location B

Click the Exhibit button to view the conceptual environment architecture.

The architect should use ________ in Location A, and should use _________ in Location B. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. NetScaler Gateway as a Service, no NetScaler products

B. No NetScaler products, NetScaler ADC (BYO)

C. NetScaler Gateway as a Service, NetScaler ADC (BYO)

D. No NetScaler products, NetScaler ICA Proxy (cloud-licensed)

E. NetScaler Gateway as a Service, NetScaler ICA Proxy (cloud-licensed)

F. No NetScaler products; NetScaler Gateway appliance

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a NetScaler deployment in Microsoft Azure. An Active-Passive NetScaler VPX pair will provide load balancing for three distinct web applications. The architect has identified the following requirements:

1.

Minimize deployment costs where possible.

2.

Provide dedicated bandwidth for each web application.

3.

Provide a different public IP address for each web application.

For this deployment, the architect should configure each NetScaler VPX machine to have ______ network interface(s) and configure IP address by using ________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence).

A. 4; Port Address Translation

B. 1; Network Address Translation

C. 1; Port Address Translation

D. 2; Network Address Translation

E. 4; Network Address Translation

F. 2; Port Address Translation

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A Citrix Architect needs to make sure that maximum concurrent AAA user sessions are limited to 4000 as a security restriction.

Which authentication setting can the architect utilize to view the current configuration?

A. Global Session Settings

B. AAA Parameters

C. Active User Session

D. AAA Virtual Server

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/category/netscaler/netscaler-11-1/netscaler-gateway-11-1/


Question 12:

Which encoding type can a Citrix Architect use to encode the StyleBook content, when importing the StyleBook configuration under source attribute?

A. Hex

B. base64

C. URL

D. Unicode

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler-mas/12/stylebooks/how-to-use-api-to-create-configuration-from-stylebooks/import-custom-stylebooks.html


Question 13:

Which parameter must a Citrix Architect configure to ensure that HDX Proxy Connection terminates upon AAA Session TimeOut?

A. ICA session timeout in VPN parameters

B. Session timeout(mins) in NetScaler gateway Session Profile.

C. Session timeout(mins) in VPN Parameters

D. ICA session timeout in netScaler Gateway Session Profile.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.citrix.com/content/dam/citrix/en_us/citrix-developer/documents/Netscaler/how-do-i-ica-session-timeout-with-aaa.pdf


Question 14:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to deploy a load balancing for an application server on the NetScaler. The authentication must be performed on the NetScaler. After the authentication, the Single Sign-on with the application servers must be performed using Kerberos impersonation.

Which three authentication methods can the Architect utilize to gather the credentials from the user in this scenario? (Choose three.)

A. SAML

B. OTP

C. TACACS

D. WEBAUTH

E. LDAP

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 15:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing NetScaler multi-site deployment. The deployment is using Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) configured in a parent-child configuration.

Click the Exhibit button to view the diagram of the current GSLB configuration and parent-child relationships, as well as the status of the sites and the connectivity between them.

Based on the displayed configuration and status, Chil_site1_______ a connection from _______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. rejects; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1

B. rejects; SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1

C. accepts; SiteP3; becomes its child site

D. accepts; SiteP2; becomes its child site

E. does NOT receive; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1

F. rejects; SiteP2; remains a child site of SiteP1

Correct Answer: E


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[Newest Version] Free 1Z0-419 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

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Question 1:

Which statement is true about the use of data controls in JSF? (Choose the best answer)

A. Only Oracle ADF Business Components can be exposed as data controls.

B. Dragging a data control onto a JSF page generates a Java class that acts as a managed bean

C. An XXXpagedef xml file holds detailed information about a JSF page\’s use of data and operations exposed through ADF Data Controls

D. Data controls eliminate the need to use expression language in your JSF code for binding the Ul to data

E. A Databindings cpx file holds names of managed beans that you map to Ul elements

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What is the first step you perform to secure an ADF application? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Edit the web.xml file and adf-confiq.xml file to include the ADF authentication servlet configuration.

B. Merge the application roles into the deployment server\’s roles.

C. Define a lifecycle listener to intercept the HTTP request for the application\’s URL

D. Use the Configure ADF Security wizard to enable secunty for the application.

E. Create a login page and run the application authenticated as the test-all user.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Your page contains the following code that is invoked on an action by the current user;

To receive the value from the to property of the afsetPropertyListener, you create a managed bean as follows

package view;

public class Employee { String lastName;

What Fl pynrp?;;jnn wnnlrl vnn wrifp in thp a<;;pfPrnnprtvl <;;lpnpr";I"; nrnnprtv tn writp Ihp valnp tnlhp la^tNamp <;ti

IIIIIIIUVUM WUUII _v-k>p换 UW*U\玹 ii,llw\.vpn. 穒i玀獺-?WbUI* — ^\’|

What EL expression would you write in the af setPropertyListener “to” property to write the value to the lastName string of the Employee class? (Choose the best answer.)

A. to=”#{lastName}”

B. B.to=”#{LastNamer

C. C.to=”#{pageFlowScope.emp.lastName):

D. to^frfpageFlowScopeEmplastName}”

E. to=”#{emp.lastName}e

F. to=”#{pageFlowScope emp LastName}”

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which two statements are true after rolling back an application module? (Choose two.)

A. The associated view object iterators for the application module have their current row indicators reset to the first row.

B. All entity object caches for the associated view objects of the application module are emptied.

C. Any attribute changes to entity objects for the associated view objects of the application module are reset to their onginal values.

D. The application module is passivated.

E. New or deleted records are unaffected by the rollback.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

Identify two statements that describe the benefits of using ADF to build web applications for mobile devices. (Choose two.)

A. Mobile devices are supported by using native code.

B. ADF code and applications are re-used.

C. Separate applications are required for tablets and smart phones.

D. ADF Faces components adjust to support touch gestures and layouts.

E. Native mobile components are used to develop a user interface.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

Which three steps would you perform to enable security for an ADF application? (Choose three.)

A. Define authentication and authorization by using the configure ADF Security wizard.

B. B. Define which HTML pages must be secured.

C. Grant roles access rights to bounded task flows.

D. Grant roles access rights to unbounded task flows.

E. Deploy the application to a Java EE Security-enabled server to test the user roles.

F. Grant roles access rights to pagedefs for views in unbounded task flows.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

You want to configure an application so that users can shop for products anonymously without authentication, and must then authenticate after they enter the checkout process How would you enable this requirement? (Choose the best answer)

A. Grant roles access rights to the task flow containing the checkout process

B. Ensure the task flow containing the shopping process is unbounded

C. Remove ADF Security for the application and replace it with Java EE Security for the task flow containing the checkout process

D. Add a view containing a login form to the task flow containing the checkout process

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

To deploy an application, select the application drop-down and choose Deploy. In the resulting dialog box, select Deploy to EAR file to_______or Deploy to Application Server to______. (Choose the best answer.)

A. create a file to deploy to using WLST or Ant scripts; deploy an application to a managed server

B. deploy an application to a predefined application server; deploy a JAR file to a predefined application server

C. create a file to deploy to a clustered server; deploy an application to a third-party application server

D. deploy to the Integrated WebLogic server: deploy to a clustered server

E. create a file to deploy to a clustered server; deploy an application using Enterprise Manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which statement is true about creating a method at the application module level? (Choose the best answer.)

A. You cannot create methods at the application module level.

B. Application module methods provide an interface for the view layer to call custom business logic that may work across multiple data views.

C. Application module methods are best suited to writing validation logic for entity objects.

D. Methods in an application module allow you to manipulate Ul components in the ViewController project

E. Because ADF provides no way at run time to automatically create or delete view object records, you must create application module methods to do this.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which two statements are true about the Key Exists validator? (Choose two.)

A. it always issues a select to the database to ensure all data is up to date.

B. it first checks the cache for match and then goes to the database only if necessary.

C. it cannot validate any data changes that happened in the current transaction that have not yet been committed to the database.

D. it can validate any data changes that happened in the current transaction that have not yet been committed to the database.

E. it can be used only with attributes that are defined as primary keys in the database.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 11:

For what purpose would you use the entity object attribute setting Change lndicator?(Choose the best answer.)

A. to highlight the attribute in the Ul with a border when the original attribute value has been changed

B. to fire an entity object custom method as soon as the original attribute value has been changed

C. to automatically lock the corresponding record in the database

D. to automatically refresh the attribute value if the underlying data in the database is changed by another user

E. to define an attribute that the framework uses to check whether the update is about to happen on underlying stale data in the database

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which three options does an entity object automatically implement? (Choose three.)

A. primary key functionality based on any column in the database that is marked as a primary key

B. B. not-null functionality based on any column in the database that is marked as not null

C. attribute precision based on column size

D. all table check constraints

E. any table triggers

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 13:

Which two statements are true about unbounded task flows? (Choose two.)

A. They must have a defined entry point.

B. They must have a defined exit point

C. They may pass parameters to bounded task flows.

D. They can use method calls but not routers to control navigation.

E. Parameters cannot be passed to an unbounded task flow.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

You have two entities, ItemEO and ProductEO. ItemEO contains the Orderld, ttemld, Productld, Price, and Quantity attributes. ProductEO contains the Id, ProductName, and ListPrice attributes You need to return rows as shown in the table Orderld

Itemld

Productld

ProductName 34321

Ski hat 100?

38997

Downhill ski poles 30315

Swim goggles 31876

Baseball mitt

How would you create a view object to encapsulate these rows? (Choose the best answer)

A. Create a view object based on the ItemEO entity and add ProductEO as a reference entity.

B. Create a view object based on the ItemEO entity and modify the generated query to include SELECT ProductEO NAME. ProductEOJD, FROM S_PRODUCT ProductEO.

C. Create a view object based on the ItemEO entity and modify the WHERE clause to include ItemEO PRODUCTJD = ProductEO ID

D. Create a view object based on the ItemEO entity and create a view criteria to add ttemEO PRODUCTJD – :productld. Define productld as a bind variable to be passed in by the Ul

E. Create a view object based on the ItemEO entity and change the query mode to Expert Define the query as SELECT Item ORDJD, Item ITEMJD, Item.PRODUCTJD, Product.NAME, FROM SJTEM Item JOIN S_PRODUCT Product ON ltem.PRODUCT_ID=Productld.

Correct Answer: E


Question 15:

Which two statements are true about af:tree? (Choose two.)

A. You can show only one outputText per node in aftree.

B. To modify the data fields shown in a node of a tree created with ADF binding, you need to edit the tree bindings.

C. You can specify a filter for a tree\’s node based on an attribute value at design time.

D. Trees can display, at the most, a three-level-deep hierarchy.

Correct Answer: AC


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Question 1:

A customer has one Business Unit, two Legal Entities, and each have eight warehouses (defined as Inventory Orgs). While trying to set up Cost Organizations for each of these Legal Entities, you were unable to perform the mandatory step of

assigning the Profit Center Business Unit for one set of eight Inventory Organizations; however, you could do it for the other set.

What is the reason for this?

A. There is no Inventory Validation Organization defined.

B. There is no Business Unit associated with the Legal Entity.

C. The General Ledger is not associated with Business Unit.

D. The Business Unit is not enabled for Costing.

E. The Legal Entity Setup is incomplete.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Your customer has defined three business units: two of them require the same set of receivables payment terms whereas the third needs a separate set of receivables payment terms. How will you achieve this requirement?

A. Define one data set with common payment terms and exclude the payment terms feature from the third business unit.

B. Define two reference data sets, assign the first set to the two business units which will share the same payment terms and second set to the business unit which needs separate payment terms.

C. Define three reference data sets and assign each data set to each business unit.

D. Define one reference data set and modify the business unit security.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

On the Supply Lines Overview page, the deviations in supply type chart show a supply line status of exception. What action must you take?

A. This indicates that supply line quantities are available but the quality is not up to the mark, so the quality issue must be resolved.

B. This indicated that supply line has an exception in manufacturing goods, so the supply line must be changed.

C. This indicates that supply line quantities are less than required, so additional quantities must be procured to meet the requirement.

D. This indicates that supply line quantities are not available, so inventory must be procured.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

You defined an Inventory Organization that is meant to track the contract manufacturing process outsourced to a supplier. Where do you mention that this Inventory Organization is meant for one particular supplier?

A. Manage Contract Manufacturing Relationships

B. Manage Item Organizations

C. Manage Subinventories

D. Manage Inventory Organization Locations

E. Manage Inventory Organizations

Correct Answer: E


Question 5:

Your organization performs a restock via a transfer order between inventory organizations, using the following parameters for processing: Transfer Type: In-transit transfer type Receipt Routing: Standard Transfer Order Required: Yes During the process, the receiving organization wants to make a change to the transfer order line. After which fulfillment stage will they no longer be able to change the transfer order?

A. Closed

B. Ship Confirm

C. Awaiting Fulfillment

D. Awaiting Receiving

E. Awaiting Billing

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Identify the correct movement request where the move orders are preapproved requests for subinventory transfers that bring material from a source location to a shipment staging subinventory within the organization.

A. Automatic Movement Request Requisitions

B. Pick Wave Movement Request

C. Replenishment Movement Request

D. Shipping Movement Request

E. Movement Request Requisitions

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

You need to load on-hand balances for go live. Which template should be used for this?

A. InventoryMiscellaneousTrxTemplate.xlsm

B. InventoryReservationImportTemplate.xlsm

C. InventoryOnHandBalanceTemplate.xlsm

D. InventoryTransactionImportTemplate.xlsm

E. InventoryBalanceImportTemplate.xlsm

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

You have set up min-max planning at the subinventory level with the following to source item AS12312 for Organization: M1: Source Type: Organization Organization: M1

What type of supply request will be generated?

A. Intraorganization transfer order

B. Internal Requisition

C. None; this is an invalid setup

D. Purchase Requisition

E. Movement request

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Your company has multiple inventory organizations where goods are transferred internally. A user has created a new organization but the new organization is unavailable when creating an interorganization transfer. What is the missing setup?

A. The destination organization transfer type is In Transit.

B. Interorganization Parameters are not set up between the organizations.

C. Inventory organization data access for users is not set up.

D. The source and destination organization doesn\’t belong to the same legal entity.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

In Supply Chain Orchestration, Automated Change Management performs which two functions?

A. splitting of a sales order

B. changing the ship method on a sales order

C. changing the supplier on a purchase order

D. change to need by dates of a purchase order

E. change to item attributes

Correct Answer: AD


Question 11:

Which two tasks must be defined to set up the Facilities Schedule?

A. Manage Facility Time Cards

B. Manage Facility Operations

C. Manage Facility Workday Patterns

D. Manage Facility Shifts

E. Manage Facility Holidays

Correct Answer: CD


Question 12:

Your organization is using min-max planning to replenish stock and the planning parameters are set at item organization level with a default subinventory:

Item: A, Min Qty: 25, Max Qty: 150 and Current Level: 20 The item above is purchased from a supplier. Although there is subinventory on hand, the subinventory is below the minimum required level.

This should trigger a Min-Max report entry, but the requisition is not generated. Why?

A. Rounding the Reorder Quantity is disabled.

B. Min-max planning can be performed at the Organization level.

C. Item is not defined in Manage Item Subinventories.

D. No value has been set for the “Min-Max Replenishment Reorder Approval” profile.

E. Fixed lot multiplier is not set.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Your customer wants to transfer material from facility A to facility B. They are using the interorganization transfer to perform the transaction in the system. Their requirement is “whenever material is transferred from their facility A to facility B,

facility B needs to pay 5% additional amount to the current item cost.”

Which task must be set up to accomplish this requirement?

A. Manage Cost Plus Pricing

B. Manage Organization Relationships

C. Manage Cost Organization Relationships

D. Manage Transfer Pricing Rules

E. Manage Interorganization Markup

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countires. Their legal requirements, Human Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for Ledger are different for each country. Your customer wants to maintain 10

different companies in the system.

Which combination meets this requirement?

A. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger

B. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger

C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger D. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across all divisions

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A third-party service equipment is used for various purposes in a manufacturing facility and needs to be overhauled once a year. This equipment is charged based on its consumption without a project dependency.

At this point, it should be transferred out to the vendor\’s warehouse for maintenance and then returned back in the future depending upon the requirement. The material stock transfer should happen with an offline approval and with an

account alias as a logical reference.

What is the ideal way to handle this process?

A. Subinventory Transfer

B. Move Request

C. Transfer Order

D. Miscellaneous Transaction

E. Requisitions

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which is a term under ASC 606 or IFRS 15?

A. transaction price

B. promise detail

C. initial performance event

D. requires complete

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.oracle.com/_downloads/Datasheet_Financials_3_RevenueMgmt/Revenue_M anagement_Datasheet.pdf


Question 2:

Which statement Is True regarding the Customer Contract Source Data Import Template?

A. It is a predefined Excel FBDI template.

B. It is a predefined Java FBDI template.

C. It Is a predefined HTML FBDI template.

D. It is a custom template that you are required to build.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andcad=rjaanduact=8andv ed=2ahUKEwjQrM7ImKzdAhUHxYUKHbYLBpAQFjAAegQIBBACandurl=http://w ww.oracle.com /webfolder/technetwork/docs% 2Ffbdi- r11/fbdi/xlsm% 2FRevenueDataImportTemplate.xlsmandusg=AOvVaw2kKXNI1OQEF 9K6p7rBAEwz


Question 3:

What is a Standalone Selling Price (SSP)?

A. the average of your bundled price

B. the sum of the SSPs of the components

C. the list price

D. the price you would use if you sold to a customer separately

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Given your organization\’s Interactions with one of Its customers:

1.

A consultant is deployed to assist customer on 10-Sep-2017.

2.

A Sales order is booked on 14-Sep-2017.

3.

The Product is shipped on 15-Sep-2017.

4.

An Invoice is issued on 20-Sep-2017.

When do you accrue the contract liability?

A. when the consultant is deployed to assist customer on 10-Sep-2017

B. when the product is shipped on 15-Sep-2017

C. when the sales order Is booked on 14-Sep-2017

D. when an invoice is issued on 20-Sep-2017

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

After defining a pricing dimension structure for a customer, you must define a pricing dimension structure instance.

Which two attributes on the structure instance are inherited from the structure definition?

A. whether Dynamic Combination Creation Allowed is enabled

B. the shape: Same number of segments and order

C. the Displayed option

D. the value sets

E. the Query Required option

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

Which is the following is NOT a feature of personalization

A. Selecting default language

B. Changing text font

C. Saving searches

D. Configuring table columns

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which three tasks can be performed In the Revenue Management Work Area?

A. Edit Contract Identification Rules.

B. Review Observed Standalone Selling Prices.

C. Manage contracts in “Pending Review” status.

D. Manage contracts in “Pending Allocation” status.

E. Review Performance Satisfaction Plans.

F. Review Revenue Price Profiles.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 8:

Which three tasks are associated with defining a Pricing Dimension Structure?

A. Define up to 30 segments and name them.

B. Define up to 20 segments and name them.

C. Analyze pricing policies across products and services.

D. Create multiple instances for a given Pricing Dimension Structure.

E. Include user friendly prompts for each segment.

F. Assign required segment labels to each segment.

Correct Answer: ACF

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/financialscs_gs/FAIRP/FAIRP2288193.htm#FAIRP20 10696


Question 9:

The contract Promised Details tabs includes Selling Amount, Allocated Amount, Revenue Recognized, and Bill…….

What is the difference between Selling Amount and Allocated Amount?

A. The Selling Amount is calculated based on Standalone Selling Prices and is used for the Revenue Recognition amount. The Allocated Amount is based on the source document sales lines amounts and is ultimately used to tie back to your source document upload.

B. The Selling Amount is calculated based on the source document sales lines amounts and is used to tie back to your source document upload. The Allocated Amount is based on Standalone Selling Price and is ultimately used for the Revenue Recognition amount.

C. The Selling Amount is calculated based on Standalone Selling Prices and is used to tie back to your SSP upload or calculation. The Allocated Amount is based on the Billed amount and is ultimately used for the Revenue Recognition amount.

D. The Selling Amount is calculated based on the source document sales lines amount and is used for the Revenue Recognition amount. The Allocated Amount is based on the Billed Amount and Is used to tie back to your Billing source document upload.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

A furniture store is running a promotion for a toaster with the purchase of a sofa or chair set. Data about the free toaster is not captured in any upstream application. How should you handle this scenario In Revenue Management?

A. Ignore the performance obligation for the toaster because it was free of cost to the customer.

B. Define an Implied Performance Obligation Template to automatically add a performance obligation for the toaster.

C. Create the performance obligation for the toaster manually.

D. Define an adhoc rule in the Revenue Price Profile to include the toaster.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

The Contracts Requiring Attention user Interface has three tabs: Pending Review, Pending Allocation, and Pending Revenue Recognition.

What would cause a contract to be In the Pending Review tab?

A. The total Transaction Price is over the user-defined threshold amount.

B. The contract is missing standalone selling prices at the promised detail level or at obligation level.

C. The contract is missing satisfaction events.

D. The contract is missing Billing data.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Accounting contracts with a total transaction price that is greater than the user-defined

threshold amount you defined in your system options. Contracts in this list are significant value contracts.

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/financialscs_gs/FAOFC/FAOFC2288367.htm#FAOF C2288367


Question 12:

You have defined 3 Contract Identification rules: Rule A, Rule B, and Rule C. You then decide that Rule C needs to be the first rule executed when the “Identify Customer Contracts” process runs.

Which attribute needs to be updated to achieve this objective?

A. Freeze Period

B. Default Classification

C. Source Document Type

D. Priority

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Revenue Management creates journal entries from a contract In order to recognize revenue properly. Which three event types are used by Revenue Management to create these journal entries?

A. Performance Obligation Satisfied

B. Performance Obligation Billed

C. Initial Performance

D. Revenue Recognized

E. Standalone Selling Prices Allocated

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 14:

Your customer ships machines, and can recognize revenue for each machine after the machine has been delivered to a customer without waiting for complete satisfaction of an entire performance obligation. How would you configure Satisfaction Method (SM) and Satisfaction Measurement Model (SMM) in Revenue Management to recognize revenue for these performance obligations at a point in time?

A. by setting SM to “Allow Partial” and SMM to “Quantity”

B. by setting SM to “Requires Complete” and SMM to “Period”

C. by setting SM to “Requires Complete” and SMM to “Quantity”

D. by setting SM to “Requires Complete” and SMM to “Percent”

E. by setting SM to “Allow Partial” and SMM to “Period”

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

After analyzing sales documents for your organization, you conclude that it will be appropriate to group transaction lines by customer to create contracts In Revenue Management.

Which predefined Contract Identification Rule can be used in this case?

A. Identify Customer Contract Based on Party

B. Identify Customer Contract Based on Source Document Line

C. Identify Customer Contract Based on Source Document

D. Identify Customer Contract Based on Source System

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/financialscs_gs/FAIRP/FAIRP2288193.htm#FAIRP24 33444


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Question 1:

Which is the correct option to forward logs from Tanzu Kubernetes Grid clusters to Elastic, Kafka, Splunk or an HTTP endpoint?

A. No action is required. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid automatically forwards the logfiles to syslog.

B. Use the kubectl get logs command to forward the logs

C. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight

D. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

In the following StorageClass manifest, which field is used to specify the Volume Plugin driver used for underlying storage array?

A. type

B. name

C. parameters

D. provisioner

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which option of Tanzu Mission Control is used to manage namespaces within and across clusters?

A. Workspaces

B. Workhome

C. Workloads

D. Workgroup

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which step must be taken to enable Kubernetes auditing on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster?

A. Set the ENABLE_AUDIT_LOGGING variable to ‘true’ before deploying the cluster

B. Run systemctl start auditd andand systemctl enable auditd on master node

C. Audit is enabled by default on every Tanzu cluster

D. Edit /etc/kubernetes/audit-policy.yaml and set ENABLE_AUDIT variable to ‘1’ on master node

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

What command would an administrator use to upgrade the Tanzu Management Cluster?

A. apt-get install -y kubeadm

B. tkg management-upgrade

C. tanzu-upgrade-mgt

D. tkg upgrade management-cluster

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What does an administrator need to install to attach a Kubernetes cluster to Tanzu Mission Control (TMC)?

A. TMC service

B. The agent is already installed

C. Cluster agent extensions

D. TMC agent pack

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Under Menu, which section to enable Tanzu Kubernetes Cluster in VMware vSphere for Tanzu on vSphere Client?

A. VMs and Templates

B. Hosts and Cluster

C. Workload Management

D. Content Libraries

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What is the advantage of connecting the Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG) CLI to a vSphere with Tanzu Supervisor Cluster?

A. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters can be managed with vCenter Server Graphical User Interface console.

B. Kubernetes objects can be created via vCenter Server VAMI interface.

C. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters can be managed with ESXi Host Client.

D. Tanzu Kubernetes clusters can be deployed to vSphere with Tanzu and manage their lifecycle directly

from the TKG CLI.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

What is the default authentication implemented in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid?

A. Keycloak

B. Vault

C. Dex and Gangway

D. kube-oidc-proxy

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

After successfully configuring vSphere Container Storage Interface (CSI), what is the path an administrator can follow to view the status of the container volumes?

A. Describe the StorafeClass via kubectl.

B. vSAN Data Store in ESXi Host Client.

C. Get the status of the pods vis kubectl.

D. Container volumes in vSphere Client.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What are the infrastructure services prerequisites to enable Tanzu in vSphere? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DHCP

B. Active directory

C. Firewall

D. DNS

E. NTP

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 12:

A Tanzu Mission Control administrator would like to enforce the following container controls:

Require Digest.

Name-Tag Allowlist.

To which type of policies do these controls belong to?

A. Security

B. Registry

C. Access

D. Network

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

A customer needs to use Kubernetes and wants to use networking solution, Antrea. Which product from Tanzu portfolio should the customer use?

A. Tanzu Application Catalog

B. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid

C. Tanzu Mission Control

D. Tanzu Observability

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What is the object in Kubernetes used to grant permissions to a cluster wide resource?

A. ClusterRoleAccess

B. RoleBinding

C. ClusterRoleBinding

D. RoleReference

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What are two ClusterAPI providers being used in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid? (Choose two.)

A. CAPZ

B. CAPA

C. CAP

D. CAPW

E. CAPV

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

According to NIST, what are the five essential characteristics of the cloud?

A. On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service

B. Networks, firewalls, storage, applications, and services

C. Platform as a service, bring your own software license, ability to reply applications over the internet, software as a service, and private network

D. On-demand network access, dedicated pool of computing resources, direct attached storage, rapid provisioning, and self service

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Power Systems Virtual Servers on IBM Cloud supports which two operating systems? (Choose two.)

A. Windows Server

B. IBM

C. VMware ESX

D. z/OS

E. AIX

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

What is a resource group in IBM Cloud?

A. Application resources that have been placed in the same zone

B. A container for resources to which access privileges can be assigned

C. A set of provisioned services labeled with the same tag

D. A group of resources that can be created on demand using a Teraform script

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

What is Salesforce?

A. A full stack cloud platform that spans public, private, and hybrid environments

B. A Software-as-a-Service offering that focuses on client relationship management

C. Enterprise software and applications for ERP, CRM, HR, and Finance running in the cloud

D. A flexible cloud platform for building, testing, deploying, and managing Microsoft- and Linux-based applications

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

How can cloud computing make a real difference to a customer\’s business?

A. Cloud delivers predictable monthly CAPEX charges which allow many businesses to more easily manage their IT budgets based on known costs and their changing compute demand

B. Cloud environments offer high availability by default meaning that migration to cloud will immediately solve any issues the business has had with application downtime

C. Cloud makes it possible for businesses to greatly decrease the time from decision to value by enabling the ability to experiment, learn, and fail fast, without large amounts of upfront capital

D. Cloud vendors sell annual hardware hosting contracts to tens of thousands of customers and can discount heavily due to economies of scale meaning cloud is inexpensive

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

As part of a VPC, what do Access Control Lists provide?

A. Subnet level firewall capabilities

B. Ability to restrict user access by role

C. Ability to prevent DDoS attacks

D. Governance for privileged access

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What is a virtual private cloud?

A. A collection of public virtual machines built on private single tenant hardware

B. A secure, isolated private cloud hosted within a public cloud

C. A collection of private bare metal servers, running single tenant virtual machines

D. A secure, isolated, private cloud hosted on premises

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which advantages are provided by IBM Cloud\’s databases?

A. Makes more accurate predictions, automate decisions and processes

B. Easily connect applications and data across multiple clouds

C. High availability, enhanced security, and flexible, scalable performance

D. Easily analyze data and build machine learning models

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which factor motivates companies to increasingly adopt the use of the cloud, transforming their environments at the same time reducing the size of legacy systems and reducing costs?

A. Virtual servers can be migrated between dedicated hosts based on workload requirements

B. All public cloud resources can be freely accessed by every member all the time

C. A full on premises service stack that enables highly available, redundant, and isolated client solutions

D. The power, scalability, flexibility, and pay-as-you-go economics of the cloud

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What describes IBM Event Streams?

A. It is used to connect different applications and have event trigger actions between applications

B. It enables a fast message provisioning capability in the cloud

C. It enables the extension of enterprise messaging to the cloud

D. It is a high throughput message bus built with Apache Kafka

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

When building a solution that requires an intelligent search service that will deliver specific answers to questions while also serving up an entire document for exploration, which IBM Cloud service should be used?

A. Knowledge Catalog

B. Watson Discovery

C. Knowledge Studio

D. Watson Explorer

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What are containers?

A. Independent units deployed in networking spaces that are logically separated segments

B. A control group that can be run anywhere, desktop, traditional IT, or the cloud

C. An executable unit of software in which application code is packaged

D. A security group that provides security at the instance level such as VSIs

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What makes it possible to run multiple virtual machines on a bare metal server?

A. Disk

B. Cores

C. Virtualization

D. Memory

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What is required before creating and using toolchains that contain certain tool integrations?

A. A Continuous Delivery service

B. The Creator role permissions

C. A Kubernetes cluster

D. A container repository

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is an example of a cloud native application?

A. An application developed using an IBM Cloud hosted integrated development environment and deployed to production on a locally hosted virtual machine

B. A software platform available exclusively on IBM Cloud

C. A containerized application that is deployed on an orchestrated platform

D. A Windows application designed to run both on IBM Cloud and on locally hosted environments

Correct Answer: A


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