[Newest Version] Free 1V0-71.21 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

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Question 1:

What are two ways a container in a Pod can consume ConfigMap data? (Choose two.)

A. Mounted as a Persistent Volume Claim (PVC)

B. From Read-only files

C. From Read-write files

D. From Environment variables

E. Containers do not consume ConfigMap data

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/configuration/configmap/


Question 2:

Which VMware product provides the ability to connect and protect microservices across any runtime and any cloud?

A. Tanzu Network Profiler

B. Tanzu Observability

C. Tanzu Service Mesh

D. NSX Advanced Load Balancer

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/vmwaretanzu-service-mesh-datasheet.pdf


Question 3:

What two kubectl commands would provide the status of Pod in a Kubernetes cluster? (Choose two.)

A. kubectl get pods

B. kubectl describe pods

C. kubectl pods status

D. kubectl status pods

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://kubernetes.io/docs/reference/kubectl/overview/


Question 4:

What is the relationship between Kubernetes and containers?

A. There is no relationship between Kubernetes and containers

B. Kubernetes provides a platform for managing containerized workloads

C. Kubernetes is a place where you store container images

D. Kubernetes provides a way to build containers

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.stackchief.com/tutorials/What is Kubernetes? | Kubernetes Tutorial


Question 5:

What is the purpose of a container?

A. Make it difficult to change the environment that an application runs on

B. Abstract a running application from the environment that it runs on

C. Make it easy to change the runtime that an application uses

D. Allow a complex application to run as a single unit

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cio.com/article/2924995/what-are-containers-and-why-do-you-need-them.html


Question 6:

What is the valid way to deploy a Pod in a Kubernetes cluster?

A. Copy a manifest file to the API server in the /etc/kubernetes/pods directory

B. SSH to the worker node where the Pod is desired to run and issue the command “kubectl apply -f myPod.yaml”

C. Copy a manifest file to a worker node in the /etc/kubernetes/pods directory

D. Issue the command “kubectl apply -f myPod.yaml”

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://medium.com/analytics-vidhya/mlops-dockers-and-kubernetes-essentials-for-a-datascientist-8bc7b5866957


Question 7:

VMware Tanzu is a family of products and services for modernizing _______ and _______.

A. Networks and Servers

B. Applications and Infrastructure

C. Networks and Applications

D. Infrastructure and Networks

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://tanzu.vmware.com/content/blog/all-the-ways-vmware-tanzutm-works-withaws#:~:text=VMware Tanzu is a family,deliver better software to% 20production.andtext=VMware Tanzu enables% 20development and,to deliver% 20transformative business results


Question 8:

Which two goals can be achieved using a Kubernetes deployment? (Choose two.)

A. Change the container image in a Pod

B. Define different classes of storage

C. Increase the number of replicas of a given Pod

D. Grant an Active Directory user access to a Kubernetes cluster

E. Ensure that only one instance of a Pod will run on every node in a Kubernetes cluster

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

Which Kubernetes Service type is invalid?

A. LoadBalancer

B. NodePort

C. InternalName

D. ExternalName

E. ClusterIP

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/services-networking/service/


Question 10:

List three benefits of Tanzu Mission Control: (Choose three.)

A. Converts your Kubernetes Clusters to ClusterAPI Mode

B. Enhances operational efficiency

C. Strengthens security and compliance

D. Provides CI/CD Pipeline Automation

E. Increases developer agility and productivity

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://tanzu.vmware.com/mission-control


Question 11:

Why do enterprises need Application Modernization?

A. To build new applications is the only way to achieve a modern application

B. To realize the benefits of unstructured data over relational databases

C. The cost of maintaining older applications are too great

D. To migrate all applications to the cloud

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.anblicks.com/blog/key-benefits-of-application-modernization/


Question 12:

Which are three container registries? (Choose three.)

A. Google Container Registry

B. Amazon Container Image Service

C. Docker Hub

D. Open Container Image Registry

E. Harbor

F. VMware Container Registry

Correct Answer: CEF

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/vmware-vsphere-with-tanzu/GUID376FCCD1-7743-4202-ACCA-56F214B6892F.html


Question 13:

Which are three valid ways to specify a Namespace when creating an object in Kubernetes? (Choose three.)

A. Specifying the Namespace in a ConfigMap

B. Specifying the Namespace in the container image for the object provided to “kubectl apply”

C. Specifying the Namespace in the context of the kubectl configuration file

D. Specifying the Namespace as an environment variable

E. Specifying the Namespace in the manifest file for the object provided to “kubectl apply”

F. Using the “–namespace” option when issuing a kubectl command

Correct Answer: BCF

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/topics/glossary/content/kubernetes-namespace


Question 14:

What is the minimum VMware Tanzu Edition that can be used to deploy Tanzu Kubernetes Grid on AWS?

A. Tanzu Advanced

B. Tanzu Enterprise

C. Tanzu Standard

D. Tanzu Basic

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://vmc.techzone.vmware.com/resource/deploy-tanzu-kubernetes-grid-vmcaws#prerequisites-and-considerations


Question 15:

Which are two cluster management capabilities of Tanzu Mission Control? (Choose two.)

A. Data protection

B. Multi-cloud distributed clusters

C. Cluster migration

D. Data encryption

E. Cluster observability and diagnostic

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Tanzu-Mission-Control/services/tanzumc-concepts/ GUID-E2B5BE05-596E-4999-9B21-1CDB875A1BBF.html


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Free Download the Most Update CIPM Brain Dumps

How to pass Mar 28,2022 Latest CIPM free download exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid CIPM actual tests to boost your success rate in IAPP Certifications Latest CIPM vce Certified Information Privacy Manager exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We CIPM exam questions, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our IAPP Certifications materials.

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Question 1:

What is the best way to understand the location, use and importance of personal data within an organization?

A. By analyzing the data inventory.

B. By testing the security of data systems.

C. By evaluating methods for collecting data.

D. By interviewing employees tasked with data entry.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

What are you doing if you succumb to “overgeneralization” when analyzing data from metrics?

A. Using data that is too broad to capture specific meanings.

B. Possessing too many types of data to perform a valid analysis.

C. Using limited data in an attempt to support broad conclusions.

D. Trying to use several measurements to gauge one aspect of a program.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

In addition to regulatory requirements and business practices, what important factors must a global privacy strategy consider?

A. Monetary exchange.

B. Geographic features.

C. Political history.

D. Cultural norms.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What have experts identified as an important trend in privacy program development?

A. The narrowing of regulatory definitions of personal information.

B. The rollback of ambitious programs due to budgetary restraints.

C. The movement beyond crisis management to proactive prevention.

D. The stabilization of programs as the pace of new legal mandates slows.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the

development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application

that can be used in the home to manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor

appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be

made available for purchase worldwide.

The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable

for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to

use the application, a family creates a single account, and the primary user has access to all information

about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing

emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected marketing partners in order to be able to use the

application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay needed to look more closely at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is stored by Handy Helper for the additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka. Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What step in the system development process did Manasa skip?

A. Obtain express written consent from users of the Handy Helper regarding marketing.

B. Work with Sanjay to review any necessary privacy requirements to be built into the product.

C. Certify that the Handy Helper meets the requirements of the EU-US Privacy Shield Framework.

D. Build the artificial intelligence feature so that users would not have to input sensitive information into the Handy Helper.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the

development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application

that can be used in the home to manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor

appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be

made available for purchase worldwide.

The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable

for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to

use the application, a family creates a single account, and the primary user has access to all information

about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing

emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected marketing partners in order to be able to use the

application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European

distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay

needed to look more closely at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not

involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s

sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is

stored by Handy Helper for the additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of

the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all

Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka.

Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could

be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is

not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What administrative safeguards should be implemented to protect the collected data while in use by

Manasa and her product management team?

A. Document the data flows for the collected data.

B. Conduct a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) to evaluate the risks involved.

C. Implement a policy restricting data access on a “need to know” basis.

D. Limit data transfers to the US by keeping data collected in Europe within a local data center.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the

development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application

that can be used in the home to manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor

appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be

made available for purchase worldwide. The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that

it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any

further detail or privacy notice. In order to use the application, a family creates a single account, and the

primary user has access to all information about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must

check a box consenting to receive marketing emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected marketing

partners in order to be able to use the application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European

distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay

needed to look more closely at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not

involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s

sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is

stored by Handy Helper for the additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of

the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all

Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka.

Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could

be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is

not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What element of the Privacy by Design (PbD) framework might the Handy Helper violate?

A. Failure to obtain opt-in consent to marketing.

B. Failure to observe data localization requirements.

C. Failure to implement the least privilege access standard.

D. Failure to integrate privacy throughout the system development life cycle.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the

development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application

that can be used in the home to manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor

appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be

made available for purchase worldwide.

The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable

for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to

use the application, a family creates a single account, and the primary user has access to all information

about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected marketing partners in order to be able to use the application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay needed to look more closely at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is stored by Handy Helper for the additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka. Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some point in …

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[PDF and VCE] Format for Free HPE2-K42 Dumps With Exam Questions Download

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your HPE Product Certified-Nimble Solutions 2018 Newest HPE2-K42 pdf dumps Designing HPE Nimble Solutions exam. We will assist you clear the Mar 27,2022 Hotest HPE2-K42 pdf dumps exam with HPE Product Certified-Nimble Solutions 2018 HPE2-K42 braindumps. We HPE2-K42 dumps are the most comprehensive ones.

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Question 1:

Which prerequisites must be fulfilled before starting the array initialization? (Choose three)

A. HPE Nimble Windows Toolkit installed on a server/laptop.

B. Ensure your laptop/server IP has a static IP address configured on the same subnet as the array management interface.

C. Array updated to the latest firmware.

D. All switch configurations done like flow control and spanning tree.

E. Array registered in InfoSight based on the serial number.

F. HPE Service Processor deployed

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 2:

How is SmartReplicate licensed?

A. per array

B. free of charge

C. per target

D. based on capacity (per 1TB)

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/Array-Performance-and-Data/Nimble-SmartSnap-SmartReplication-vs-EMC-RecoveryPoint/td-p/6983058#.XBCRDsRR2kw


Question 3:

What is a valid QoS performance setting?

A. latency threshold

B. IOPS minimum

C. IOPS limit

D. MB/s minimum

Correct Answer: C

QoS-Limit allows a user to limit either the IOP or MB/s performance of a specific workload. Having the ability to limit both IOPS and MBs is important as quite often any single workload will have different peaks and troughs during the operational day. For instance, an OLTP workload maybe very latency sensitive to small block updates during the working day when rows and tables are frequently being accessed or updated (this will tend to be very IOP/latency sensitive) yet in the evening the same database maybe receiving feeds from other systems (or providing bulk updates/analysis or index rebuilds), the same application will cease to be IOP sensitive and will now be bandwidth (MBs) sensitive. In NimbleOS4 a user can limit a workload by either IOPS or MBs and also specify limits to both IOPS and MBs. If either limit is reached then the volume will be restricted accordingly.

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/NimbleOS-4-Quality-of-Service-QoS-Limits/ba-p/6986455#.XBEAvMRR2kw


Question 4:

What are primary HPE Nimble SmartReplicate components? (Choose three.)

A. partner

B. snapshot schedule

C. replication group

D. sync partner

E. throttle

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 5:

How should the All-Flash shelf be connected to the controller shelf?

A. Cable the All-Flash shelf directly to the last disk shelf.

B. Cable the All-Flash shelf directly to the controller shelf.

C. Use high performance SAS expanders.

D. Cable the All-Flash shelf directly to the first disk shelf.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the correct power on/off order of the All Flash-Series? (Choose two.)

A. power off the controller shelf first, then the expansion shelves

B. power on controller shelf first, then the expansion shelves

C. power on expansion shelves first, then the controller shelf

D. power off the expansion shelves first, then the controller shelf

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://www.reddit.com/r/storage/comments/3ii6dt/nimble_array_remote_shutdown_during_power_outage/


Question 7:

How can controller failover be performed? (Choose two.)

A. In CLI, use the command: failover.Perform it online via InfoSight.

B. In WebUI, on the array level, click MAKE ACTIVE.

C. In OCP, press the Failover button.

D. Perform it online via InfoSight.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Which kind of licensing approach do HPE Nimble arrays use?

A. capacity-based licensing

B. controller-based licensing

C. all-inclusive licensing

D. frame-based licensing

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Volume pinning is a technology that applies to which series of HPE Nimble arrays?

A. AF-Series

B. CF-Series

C. All series

D. HF-Series

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

How can you check which controller is in Standby mode? (Choose two.)

A. In WebU, select Controllers.

B. Use the command: showsys.

C. In WebUI, select Manage Arrays

D. Use the command: ctrl –list

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

Which statement is true about SSD addition/removal in the HF-Series system? (Choose two.)

A. SSDs cannot be added or removed.

B. SSDs can be added to the existing cache pool.

C. SSDs can be removed from the existing cache pool.

D. SSDs can only be removed if no volumes exist

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Following HPE best practices, when connecting a head unit to an expansion shelf, what port on the expansion shelf should you connect into?

A. P4

B. P1

C. P3

D. P2

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

What are valid HPE Nimble Windows Toolkit (NWT) prerequisites? (Choose three.)

A. MPIO enabled

B. running iSCSI service

C. Microsoft PowerShell 3.0

D. .NET Framework 4.5.2 or above

E. Java JRE 1.6.0 or above

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 14:

Which system roles can be assigned to a user on an HPE Nimble array? (Choose three.)

A. Backup

B. Guest

C. Read Only

D. Service

E. Operator

F. Poweruser

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 15:

What unique RAID technology did HPE Nimble create?

A. RAID-ADG

B. Network-RAID 10

C. Triple Parity RAID

D. RAID 6

Correct Answer: C


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[Newest Version] Easily Pass NSE7_EFW-6.2 Exam with Updated Real NSE7_EFW-6.2 Exam Materials

How to pass Newest NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid NSE7_EFW-6.2 new questions to boost your success rate in NSE 7 Network Security Architect Mar 24,2022 Latest NSE7_EFW-6.2 practice Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 6.2 exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We NSE7_EFW-6.2 braindumps, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our NSE 7 Network Security Architect materials.

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Question 1:

Examine the IPsec configuration shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below. Questions and Answers PDF P-3

An administrator wants to monitor the VPN by enabling the IKE real time debug using these commands: diagnose vpn ike log-filter src-addr4 10.0.10.1 diagnose debug application ike -1 diagnose debug enable The VPN is currently up, there is no traffic crossing the tunnel and DPD packets are being interchanged between both IPsec gateways. However, the IKE real time debug does NOT show any output.

Why isn\’t there any output?

A. The IKE real time shows the phases 1 and 2 negotiations only. It does not show any more output once the tunnel is up.

B. The log-filter setting is set incorrectly. The VPN\’s traffic does not match this filter.

C. The IKE real time debug shows the phase 1 negotiation only. For information after that, the administrator must use the IPsec real time debug instead: diagnose debug application ipsec -1.

D. The IKE real time debug shows error messages only. If it does not provide any output, it indicates that the tunnel is operating normally.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A corporate network allows Internet Access to FSSO users only. The FSSO user student does not have Internet access after successfully logged into the Windows AD network. The output of the `diagnose debug authd fsso list\’ command does not show student as an active FSSO user. Other FSSO users can access the Internet without problems. What should the administrator check? (Choose two.)

A. The user student must not be listed in the CA\’s ignore user list.

B. The user student must belong to one or more of the monitored user groups.

C. The student workstation\’s IP subnet must be listed in the CA\’s trusted list.

D. At least one of the student\’s user groups must be allowed by a FortiGate firewall policy.

Correct Answer: AD

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD38828


Question 3:

An administrator is running the following sniffer in a FortiGate: diagnose sniffer packet any “host 10.0.2.10” 2

What information is included in the output of the sniffer? (Choose two.)

A. Ethernet headers.

B. IP payload.

C. IP headers.

D. Port names.

Correct Answer: BC

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=11186


Question 4:

Examine the partial output from two web filter debug commands; then answer the question below: Based on the above outputs, which is the FortiGuard web filter category for the web site www.fgt99.com?

A. Finance and banking

B. General organization.

C. Business.

D. Information technology.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Examine the output of the `get router info ospf interface\’ command shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Which statements are true regarding the above output? (Choose two.)

A. The port4 interface is connected to the OSPF backbone area.

B. The local FortiGate has been elected as the OSPF backup designated router.

C. There are at least 5 OSPF routers connected to the port4 network.

D. Two OSPF routers are down in the port4 network.

Correct Answer: AC

on BROADCAST network there are 4 neighbors, among which 1*DR 1*BDR. So our FG has 4 neighbors, but create adjacency only with 2 (with DR and BDR). 2 neighbors DRother (not down).


Question 6:

Examine the output of the `get router info bgp summary\’ command shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Which statements are true regarding the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. BGP state of the peer 10.125.0.60 is Established.

B. BGP peer 10.200.3.1 has never been down since the BGP counters were cleared.

C. Local BGP peer has not received an OpenConfirm from 10.200.3.1.

D. The local BGP peer has received a total of 3 BGP prefixes.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

A FortiGate is configured as an explicit web proxy. Clients using this web proxy are reposting DNS errors when accessing any website. The administrator executes the following debug commands and observes that the n-dns-timeout counter is increasing:

What should the administrator check to fix the problem?

A. The connectivity between the FortiGate unit and the DNS server.

B. The connectivity between the client workstations and the DNS server.

C. That DNS traffic from client workstations is allowed by the explicit web proxy policies.

D. That DNS service is enabled in the explicit web proxy interface.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which real time debug should an administrator enable to troubleshoot RADIUS authentication problems?

A. Diagnose debug application radius -1.

B. Diagnose debug application fnbamd -1.

C. Diagnose authd console -log enable.

D. Diagnose radius console -log enable.

Correct Answer: B

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD32838


Question 9:

Examine the output of the `diagnose sys session list expectation\’ command shown in the exhibit; than answer the question below.

Which statement is true regarding the session in the exhibit?

A. It was created by the FortiGate kernel to allow push updates from FotiGuard.

B. It is for management traffic terminating at the FortiGate.

C. It is for traffic originated from the FortiGate.

D. It was created by a session helper or ALG.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

An administrator has configured a dial-up IPsec VPN with one phase 2, extended authentication (XAuth)

and IKE mode configuration. The administrator has also enabled the IKE real time debug:

diagnose debug application ike-1

diagnose debug enable

In which order is each step and phase displayed in the debug output each time a new dial-up user is

connecting to the VPN?

A. Phase1; IKE mode configuration; XAuth; phase 2.

B. Phase1; XAuth; IKE mode configuration; phase2.

C. Phase1; XAuth; phase 2; IKE mode configuration.

D. Phase1; IKE mode configuration; phase 2; XAuth.

Correct Answer: B

https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-ipsecvpn- 54/IPsec_VPN_Concepts/ IKE_Packet_Processing.htm


Question 11:

Two independent FortiGate HA clusters are connected to the same broadcast domain. The administrator has reported that both clusters are using the same HA virtual MAC address. This creates a duplicated MAC address problem in the network.

What HA setting must be changed in one of the HA clusters to fix the problem?

A. Group ID.

B. Group name.

C. Session pickup.

D. Gratuitous ARPs.

Correct Answer: A

https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-high-availability- 52/HA_failoverVMAC.htm


Question 12:

When does a RADIUS server send an Access-Challenge packet?

A. The server does not have the user credentials yet.

B. The server requires more information from the user, such as the token code for two-factor authentication.

C. The user credentials are wrong.

D. The user account is not found in the server.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

The logs in a FSSO collector agent (CA) are showing the following error: failed to connect to registry: PIKA1026 (192.168.12.232)

What can be the reason for this error?

A. The CA cannot resolve the name of the workstation.

B. The FortiGate cannot resolve the name of the workstation.

C. The remote registry service is not running in the workstation 192.168.12.232.

D. The CA cannot reach the FortiGate with the IP address 192.168.12.232.

Correct Answer: C

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD30548


Question 14:

What events are recorded in the crashlogs of a FortiGate device? (Choose two.)

A. A process crash.

B. Configuration changes.

C. Changes in the status of any of the FortiGuard licenses.

D. System entering to and leaving from the proxy conserve mode.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 15:

Examine the following partial outputs from two routing debug commands; then answer the question below:

Why the default route using port2 is not displayed in the output of the second command?

A. It has a lower priority than the default route using port1.

B. It has a higher priority than the default route using port1.

C. It has a higher distance than the default route using port1.

D. It is disabled in the FortiGate configuration.

Correct Answer: C

http://kb.fortinet.com/kb/viewContent.do?externalId=FD32103


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Question 1:

When you connect to an ssh server with your ssh client, the public key of the server is compared to the keys stored in a file on the client computer. Which file is this?

A. ~/.ssh/id_dsa.pub

B. ~/.ssh/id_rsa.pub

C. ~/.ssh/known_hosts

D. ~/.ssh/authorized_keys

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which commands can be used if you do not find the desired information in a manual page, or find no manual page at all for a program?

A. sos program

B. info program

C. help program

D. wiki program

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What is the difference between the /dev/st0 and /dev/nst0 devices?

A. /dev/st0 is the first SCSI CD burner; /dev/nst0 refers to the CDROM drive.

B. /dev/st0 is the first tape drive; /dev/nst0 refers to the same tape drive in non-rewinding mode.

C. /dev/st0 is the first serial console; /dev/nst0 refers to the same serial console as a block device.

D. /dev/st0 is the first SCSI hard drive; /dev/nst0 refers to the same SCSI hard drive in read-only mode.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

In which file is the name resolution configured?

A. /etc/dns.conf

B. /etc/resolv.conf

C. /etc/HOSTNAME

D. /etc/nameservers

E. /etc/sysconfig/network/dns

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which file system type supports ACLs without a special mount option?

A. ext2

B. ext3

C. XFS

D. ReiserFS

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What is the correct syntax for mounting the second partition of the first SCSI hard disk?

A. mount /mnt /dev/hda2

B. mount /dev/hda2 /mnt

C. mount /dev/sdb1 /mnt

D. mount /mnt /dev/sdb1

E. mount /dev/sda2 /mnt

F. mount /mnt /dev/sda2

Correct Answer: E


Question 7:

What does the following command do? tar -czvf /tmp/backup.tgz /etc/HOSTNAME

A. It extracts the /etc/HOSTNAME file from the /tmp/backup.tgz archive.

B. It includes the /etc/HOSTNAME file in the newly created /tmp/backup.tgz archive.

C. It produces an error message because the options are in the wrong sequence.

D. It displays a line similar to the following, but otherwise does nothing: -rw-r–r– root/root 23 2005- 03-11

14:20 etc/HOSTNAME

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which statement regarding symbolic links is true? (Choose 2.)

A. A symbolic link can point to a file on a different file system.

B. A symbolic link and the file it points to share the same inode.

C. If you delete the symbolic link, the original file is deleted as well.

D. If you delete the original file, the symbolic link points to a non-existing file.

E. With a symbolic link, you cannot see directly that it is a link.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 9:

What is the name of the file containing the initramfs?

A. /

B. /boot/initrd

C. /boot/ramfs

D. /sbin/vmram

E. /boot/vmram

F. /sbin/linuxramfs

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

You would like to run command2 only if command1 did not complete successfully.

Which command accomplishes this task?

A. command1 ;; command2

B. command1 || command2

C. command1 >> command2

D. command1 andand command2

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which statements about the Linux boot process are correct? (Choose 3.)

A. The BIOS starts the kernel.

B. The initrd decompresses itself.

C. The kernel looks for and mounts the initrd.

D. The boot manager starts the init process.

E. linuxrc loads the modules to mount the root file system.

F. The boot manager loads the kernel and initrd into the memory.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 12:

Which group name is stored in /etc/passwd?

A. Primary group

B. Effective group

C. Secondary group

D. No group name is stored there.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

You want to use the ip command to set a new address for your network device eth0. It is a standard class C network. The broadcast address and network route should be set accordingly. Which command is correct?

A. ip address set 192.168.0.10/24 dev eth0

B. ip address add 192.168.0.10/24 dev eth0

C. ip addr add 192.168.0.10/24 dev eth0 brd

D. ip addr add eth0 192.168.0.10/24 eth0 broadcast 192.168.255.255

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which protocol is used to send messages by the ping command?

A. NTP

B. FTP

C. TCP

D. ICMP

E. HTTP

F. LDAP

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

What is the output of the echo \’$HOME\’ command when user geeko (home directory /home/geeko) enters it at the bash shell prompt?

A. geeko

B. $HOME

C. /home/geeko

D. $HOME: No such file or directory

Correct Answer: B


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Latest LRP-614 Exam LRP-614 Dumps 100% Free Download

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Question 1:

A JSR-286 standard portlet extends:

A. LiferayPortlet

B. MVCPortlet

C. GenericPortlet

D. StrutsPortlet

E. Any Java class

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Instanceable portlets: (Please select all correct answers.)

A. Have unique preferences perportlet

B. Can be added to a page multiple times

C. Share the same data within the same site

D. Can be displayed in the Control Panel

E. Share the same data on the same page

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

To generate remote services with Service Builder:

A. Pass the switch “-Dremote-service=true” to the Ant “build-service” target

B. Set the attribute “remote-service\’\’ to “true” on the “entity” element in service,xml

C. Set the attribute “remote-service” to “true” on the “service-builder” element in service.xml

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Service Builder is able to: (Please select all correct answers.)

A. Generate Hibernate configuration files

B. Generate base implementations of models, services, persistence and basic finders

C. Generate struts-config.xml and tiles-defs.xml

D. Generate web services

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

A hook plugin can extend and override: (Please select all correct answers.)

A. Core portal Struts actions

B. CoreportletStruts actions

C. Portletplugin Struts actions

D. Layout template Struts actions

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

An Expando is:

A. A tool for writing newportlets in Liferay

B. A code generator which generates services based on service.xml

C. A service in Liferay which allows you to dynamically define a collection of data

D. A new administrative interface in 6.1

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

The recommended way to implement code that only runs once to modify columns in the database is with a (n):

A. GlobalStartupAction

B. ServicePreAction

C. UpgradeProcess

D. ServicePostAction

E. VerifyProcess

F. GlobalShutdownAction

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

The bundled property file that contains settings for a development environment is:

A. portal-ext. properties

B. portal-developer, properties

C. developer, properties

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

To customize the User service in a hook plugin, create a class that extends:

A. UserServicelmpI

B. UserServiceBaseImpI

C. UserService

D. UserServiceWrapper

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

The recommended way to override multiple JSPs in the Documents and Media portlet is to:

A. Create a separate hook plug in for each JSP

B. Create an Ext plugin

C. Create a hook plugin that contains all the JSPs

D. Copy them directly into Liferay

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Developing for Liferay requires:

A. IntelliJ

B. Eclipse

C. NetBeans

D. Liferay Developer Studio

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

The JavaScript method that executes after each portlet on the page loads is:

A. AUI().ready(fn)

B. Liferay.Portlet.ready(fn)

C. Liferay.on(allPortletsReady\’, fn)

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

The Ant target that removes compiled class files from the plugin is:

A. obliterate

B. destroy

C. remove

D. clean

E. reset

F. terminate

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Customizations to a theme are made in the folder:

A. _unstyled

B. .styled

C. themes

D. _diffs

E. custom

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

ThemeDisplay.getUserId() returns a value of -1 for the Guest user.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


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