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Question 1:

What is the best way to understand the location, use and importance of personal data within an organization?

A. By analyzing the data inventory.

B. By testing the security of data systems.

C. By evaluating methods for collecting data.

D. By interviewing employees tasked with data entry.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

What are you doing if you succumb to “overgeneralization” when analyzing data from metrics?

A. Using data that is too broad to capture specific meanings.

B. Possessing too many types of data to perform a valid analysis.

C. Using limited data in an attempt to support broad conclusions.

D. Trying to use several measurements to gauge one aspect of a program.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

In addition to regulatory requirements and business practices, what important factors must a global privacy strategy consider?

A. Monetary exchange.

B. Geographic features.

C. Political history.

D. Cultural norms.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What have experts identified as an important trend in privacy program development?

A. The narrowing of regulatory definitions of personal information.

B. The rollback of ambitious programs due to budgetary restraints.

C. The movement beyond crisis management to proactive prevention.

D. The stabilization of programs as the pace of new legal mandates slows.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application that can be used in the home to

manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be made available for purchase worldwide.

The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to use the application, a family

creates a single account, and the primary user has access to all information about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected

marketing partners in order to be able to use the application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay needed to look more closely

at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is stored by Handy Helper for the

additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka. Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some

point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What step in the system development process did Manasa skip?

A. Obtain express written consent from users of the Handy Helper regarding marketing.

B. Work with Sanjay to review any necessary privacy requirements to be built into the product.

C. Certify that the Handy Helper meets the requirements of the EU-US Privacy Shield Framework.

D. Build the artificial intelligence feature so that users would not have to input sensitive information into the Handy Helper.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application that can be used in the home to

manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be made available for purchase worldwide.

The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to use the application, a family

creates a single account, and the primary user has access to all information about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected

marketing partners in order to be able to use the application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay needed to look more closely

at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is stored by Handy Helper for the

additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka. Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some

point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What administrative safeguards should be implemented to protect the collected data while in use by Manasa and her product management team?

A. Document the data flows for the collected data.

B. Conduct a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) to evaluate the risks involved.

C. Implement a policy restricting data access on a “need to know” basis.

D. Limit data transfers to the US by keeping data collected in Europe within a local data center.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application that can be used in the home to

manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be made available for purchase worldwide. The packaging and user

guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to use the application, a family creates a single account,

and the primary user has access to all information about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected marketing partners in order to be

able to use the application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay needed to look more closely

at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is stored by Handy Helper for the

additional purpose of creating additional products and to analyze usage of the product. This data is all stored in the cloud and is encrypted both during transmission and at rest.

Consistent with the CEO\’s philosophy that great new product ideas can come from anyone, all Omnipresent Omnimedia employees have access to user data under a program called Eureka. Omnipresent Omnimedia is hoping that at some

point in the future, the data will reveal insights that could be used to create a fully automated application that runs on artificial intelligence, but as of yet, Eureka is not well-defined and is considered a long-term goal.

What element of the Privacy by Design (PbD) framework might the Handy Helper violate?

A. Failure to obtain opt-in consent to marketing.

B. Failure to observe data localization requirements.

C. Failure to implement the least privilege access standard.

D. Failure to integrate privacy throughout the system development life cycle.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

SCENARIO

Please use the following to answer the next question:

Manasa is a product manager at Omnipresent Omnimedia, where she is responsible for leading the development of the company\’s flagship product, the Handy Helper. The Handy Helper is an application that can be used in the home to

manage family calendars, do online shopping, and schedule doctor appointments. After having had a successful launch in the United States, the Handy Helper is about to be made available for purchase worldwide.

The packaging and user guide for the Handy Helper indicate that it is a “privacy friendly” product suitable for the whole family, including children, but does not provide any further detail or privacy notice. In order to use the application, a family

creates a single account, and the primary user has access to all information about the other users. Upon start up, the primary user must check a box consenting to receive marketing emails from Omnipresent Omnimedia and selected

marketing partners in order to be able to use the application.

Sanjay, the head of privacy at Omnipresent Omnimedia, was working on an agreement with a European distributor of Handy Helper when he fielded many questions about the product from the distributor. Sanjay needed to look more closely

at the product in order to be able to answer the questions as he was not involved in the product development process.

In speaking with the product team, he learned that the Handy Helper collected and stored all of a user\’s sensitive medical information for the medical appointment scheduler. In fact, all of the user\’s information is stored by Handy Helper for the

additional …

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[PDF and VCE] Free Share P2070-090 PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Geekcert Real Exam Questions

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Question 1:

Which of the following is NOT available with a Text Analytics collection?

A. Search multiple collections.

B. Custom text extraction rules.

C. Deep inspection of analysis results.

D. Custom user dictionaries.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

On a distributed server configuration, the master server contains which components?

A. Crawler and indexer.

B. Indexer and document processor.

C. Crawler, document processor, indexer, and search.

D. Crawler, indexer, and search.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Field filtering is a feature introduced to support which of the following capabilities?

A. Split a field value based on a specified delimiter.

B. Toggle all the characters to upper or lower case.

C. Invoke a regular expression on the field value.

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following is TRUE for UIMA?

A. It is an Open standard for implementing custom logic.

B. Different specialized annotators are needed for different use cases.

C. It easily accommodates multiple languages and domains.

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What is one of the challenges in working with unstructured information?

A. Managing essential content anywhere and governing information over its lifetime.

B. Optimizing processes that rely on content.

C. Deriving unexpected content insights.

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which one of the statements below is related to the Dashboard view?

A. The reports published on the Cognos BI server can be displayed in this view.

B. The facet values can be configured to be visualized as bar charts, column charts, pie charts and time series charts.

C. Correlation between two facets can be visualized.

D. Both B and C.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which statement is TRUE regarding the date field in IBM Content Analytics?

A. Connections view displays the date of the indexed documents.

B. Createdate is the only date that can be used for analytics.

C. Multiple date fields can be configured and selected for identifying trends.

D. All the above statements are true.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

One of the following is NOT a key solution built on IBM Content Analytics?

A. Healthcare provider clinical analysis.

B. eDiscovery for litigation discovery.

C. Fraud detection.

D. Manufacturing early warning quality.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following is the primary use of the Trends view in Text Miner?

A. Detect cyclic changes over time periods, like months of the year or days of the week.

B. Detect deviations in the correlation values between two facets.

C. Identify unexpected increases or decreases in frequency values.

D. Isolate deviations in facets values from historical values.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which of the following is the correct definition of Facets?

A. Entities that represent different dimensions of your document corpus.

B. Derived from structured fields or from text analytics in the UIMA pipeline.

C. Used for navigation through and filtering of your document set.

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which of the following is the primary use of the Deviations view in Text Miner?

A. Detect cyclic changes over time periods, like months of the year or days of the week.

B. Detect deviations in the correlation values between two facets.

C. Identify unexpected spikes in frequency values.

D. Isolate deviations in facets values from historical values.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which of the following statements is TRUE for the export capabilities in IBM Content Analytics (ICA)?

A. Crawled content and its metadata can be exported to shared drives.

B. Annotated contents could be exported to a RDB.

C. Search results can be exported as CSV files.

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which of the following is TRUE about the Capacity Planning Guide?

A. It helps to estimate the hardware configuration based on given information.

B. It is used for text analytics collections only.

C. It provides estimations with entry/enterprise level IBM System x server and mid-range IBM Power server.

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

How many additional document processors or search servers can be added without re- starting ICA?

A. As many as you need.

B. None.

C. Two.

D. Four.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

In the connections view, the number presented on the link that connects the facet nodes represents which of the following values?

A. Frequency of mutual occurrences.

B. Correlation index between the facets.

C. Date.

D. Latest index frequency.

Correct Answer: B


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Geekcert New Updated SG0-001 Exam Dumps Free Download

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Question 1:

When setting up replication for application spanning multiple LUNs, which of the following replication features should be utilized?

A. Clone

B. Snapshot

C. Semi-synchronous Replication

D. Consistency Group

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

An IP-based datacenter is adding SCSI tape and disk assets to be used by multiple servers. Which of the following will need to be added?

A. Router

B. Bridge

C. GiGE switch

D. 10/100 switch

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following is the NATIVE capacity of an LTO-4 tape cartridge?

A. 200 GB

B. 400 GB

C. 800 GB

D. 1TB

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which of the following replication types is the FASTEST?

A. Synchronous

B. Asynchronous

C. Incremental

D. Differential

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following would a company implement in order to ensure that critical system data backups are available in case the datacenter is lost due to a natural disaster?

A. Snapshots

B. e-vaulting

C. OnsiteD2D

D. OnsiteD2D2T

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which of the following Fibre Channel feature allows Virtual Machines to be seen individual^ on the fabric?

A. VLAN

B. Virtual Fabric

C. NPIV

D. Virtual Storage

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A SAN administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between a new server and a FC switch. The link is running at 8Gbps and uses a 90 meter (295 feet) optical cable. Which of the following is the FIRST item the administrator should check or perform?

A. Upgrade the switch firmware to the latest level.

B. Verify the cable is OM-3 and not OM-2

C. Run a temporary cable to bypass a patch panel.

D. Replace the server\’s host bus adapter.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which of the following are requirements for having an ISL between two FC switches? (Select TWO).

A. Both switches have to be the same model.

B. The connecting ports need to be E-ports.

C. The connecting ports need to be F-ports.

D. Each switch has to have a unique domain ID.

E. Both switches need to be running the same firmware level.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

Which of the following features can automatically facilitate a vendor service call in the event of a SAN component failure?

A. Predictive trending

B. SMS alert to administrator

C. Call home

D. SNMP

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

An administrator would like to employ a strategy to use SAN space more efficiently. Data that has a high I/O and is accessed often should be moved to SSD and Fiber Channel drives while data accessed less often should be moved to the higher capacity SATA drives. Which of the following features describes this strategy?

A. SAN snapshot

B. Storage base lining

C. Data tiering

D. Capacity planning

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which of the following describes an ISL connection?

A. Between an initiator and a target

B. Between a specific node (NL-port) and an a switch

C. From any Loop port within a Loop

D. Between two fabric switches

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

How many disks are required to create RAID 3 utilizing five data drives with a hot spare?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 10

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

An array has five drives, and each drive is 300GB in capacity. If an administrator applies RAID 5, which of the following is the usable capacity of the five drives?

A. 600 GB

B. 900 GB

C. 1.2 TB

D. 1.5 TB

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

When connecting power for switches and storage equipment with two or more redundant power supplies in a rack?

A. Power supplies from a single component should be connected to the same PDU

B. There should be a separate PDU for each device in the rack.

C. Power supplies from a single component should be connected to different PDUs.

D. Each rack should have only one PDU.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

One of the disks in a RAID 5 configuration on a NAS device has failed. Which of the following technologies would BEST allow a technician to replace the failed disk without interrupting service to the device?

A. Fibre channel array

B. Hot spare disk

C. Disk enclosure

D. Hot pluggable disk

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

How many maximum number of PCUs are in pool?

A. 42.

B. 52.

C. 50.

D. 64.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

The interface between BSC and BTS is the?

A. Air interface.

B. A interface.

C. Ater interface.

D. Abis interface.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What does FER stand for?

A. Frame Error Rate

B. Frame Equity Rate

C. Frame Erasure Rate

D. Frame Earlang Rate

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which program block is responsible for hardware alarm collection in BSC?

A. EALSMU.

B. ALARMP.

C. HWALCO.

D. DPALAR.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Define the sequence integrating the A interface:

A. Create Speech Channels, Create MTP, Create SCCP.

B. Create MTP, Create SCCP, Create Speech Channels.

C. Create SCCP, Create MTP, Create Speech Channels.

D. Create Speech Channels, Create SCCP, Create, MTP.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

For configuration of cell broadcast messages, which server should be used?

A. SMSC.

B. Cell tick.

C. Standalone BSC server.

D. NetAct Server.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is Nokia Flexi Zone?

A. NW Capacity solution using small-cell underlay networks.

B. Active Distribution Antennae system.

C. New coming LTE base station controller.

D. Nokia Flexi Zone is a custom LTE radio access solution to be offered to NSS CMCC lead customer.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

EDGE can be used to increase the data rates of GPRS to?

A. 21,4 kbit/s per TSL.

B. 42,8 kbit/s per TSL.

C. 57,6 kbit/s per TSL.

D. 69,2 kbit/s per TSL.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

The timer for periodic location updating is defined in?

A. BSC.

B. SIM.

C. VLR.

D. HLR.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What is Remote Electrical Tilting (RET) in a BTS site?

A. Remote Electrical Tilting (RET) provides increased efficiency for optimization and minimized site visits, as antenna tilting can be arranged by electric means remotely. 2G Flexi BTS Site Manager can only show the commission RET units, nothing else.

B. Remote Electrical Tilting (RET) provides increased efficiency for optimization and minimized site visits, as antenna tilting can be arranged by electric means remotely. Using the 2G Flexi BTS Site Manager, users can commission the RET devices via GUI.

C. Remote Electrical Tilting (RET) is a technology designed only for Flexi Multiradio BTS Active Antenna System.

D. Remote Electrical Tilting (RET) provides increased efficiency for optimization and minimized site visits, as antenna tilting can be arranged by electric means remotely. This feature does not support BTS configurations in concurrent mode.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which of the following is NOT a GSM basic service?

A. Asynchronous data transmission for circuit switched with data rate of 9.600 bps.

B. Short message service.

C. Call forwarding.

D. Fax transmission.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which is the IP based protocol in GPRS network?

A. GTP.

B. UDP.

C. PDCP.

D. SCTP.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

What is the protocol used to transfer alarm between BSC and NetAct?

A. X.25.

B. LAPD.

C. Q3.

D. SCTP.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

The Nokia Flexi Multiradio 10 Base Station supports:

A. GSM/EDGE, CDMA2000, WCDMA, HSPA and HSPA evolution, LTE TDD/FDD.

B. Supports 3GPP functions and features in 3GPP release 9 and beyond with modules open to Base Station Architecture Initiative (OBSAI) and Common Public Radio Interface (CPRI).

C. Flexi Multiradio 10 Base Station does not support the old legacy network interfaces. It is a true Ethernet-based transport with security BTS solution, synchronization and timing methods based on synchronous Ethernet, timing over packet, and GPS methods.

D. GSM/EDGE, WCDMA, HSPA and HSPA evolution, LTE TDD/FDD, NMP450.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What stack is used for monitoring DAP channels in Dynamic Abis in M5 Nethawk?

A. DAP 16 Kbps.

B. Nokia Abis GPRS.

C. PCU 16 Kbps.

D. Nokia Abis Signaling.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You need to address the data concerns before creating the data model. What should you do in Power Query Editor?

A. Select Column distribution.

B. Select the sales_amount column and apply a number filter.

C. Select Column profile, and then select the sales_amount column.

D. Transform the sales_amount column to replace negative values with 0.

Correct Answer: D

Scenario: Data Concerns

You are concerned with the quality and completeness of the sales data. You plan to verify the sales data for negative sales amounts.

How to convert negative numbers into positive numb, editor and right click, select

transform, and choose absolute value. That would give the positive number outcome you\’re looking for.

Reference:

https://www.xspdf.com/resolution/50510644.html


Question 2:

You need to create a calculated column to display the month based on the reporting requirements.

Which DAX expression should you use?

A. FORMAT(\’Date\'[date], “MMM YYYY”)

B. FORMAT(\’Date\’ [date], “M YY”)

C. FORMAT(\’Date\'[date_id], “MMM”) and “” and FORMAT(\’Date\'[year], “#”)

D. FORMAT(\’Date\’ [date_id], “MMM YYYY”)

Correct Answer: D

Scenario: In the Date table, the date_id column has a format of yyyymmdd. Users must be able to see the month in reports as shown in the following example: Feb 2020.


Question 3:

You need to create the required relationship for the executive\’s visual. What should you do before you can create the relationship?

A. Change the data type of Sales[region_id] to Whole Number.

B. In the Sales table, add a measure for sum(sales_amount).

C. Change the data type of sales[sales_id] to Text.

D. Change the data type of sales [region_id] to Decimal Number.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What should you create to meet the reporting requirements of the sales department?

A. a calculated column that use a formula of couMTA(Sales[sales_id]>

B. a calculated measure that uses a formula of couNTROws(Sales)

C. a calculated column that uses a formula of suM(Sales[sales_id])

D. a measure that uses a formula of sw-i(Sales[sales_id])

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

You need to create a relationship between the Weekly_Returns table and the Date table to meet the reporting requirements of the regional managers. What should you do?

A. In the Weekly.Returns table, create a new calculated column named date-id in a format of yyyymmdd and use the calculated column to create a relationship to the Date table.

B. Add the Weekly_Returns data to the Sales table by using related DAX functions.

C. Create a new table based on the Date table where date-id is unique, and then create a many-tomany relationship to Weekly_Return.

Correct Answer: A

Scenario: Region managers require a visual to analyze weekly sales and returns. To relate the two tables we need a common column


Question 6:

You need to provide a solution to provide the sales managers with the required access. What should you include in the solution?

A. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Sales_Manager table where username = UserName()

B. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Region_Manager table where sales_manager_id = UserPrincipalName().

C. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Sales_Manager table where name = UserName().

D. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Sales_Manager table where username = sales_manager_id.

Correct Answer: B

Scenario: The region_id column can be managed by only one sales manager.

You can use Username() or userprincipalname() in DAX with Row-Level Security.

Within Power BI Desktop, username() will return a user in the format of DOMAIN\User and userprincipalname() will return a user in the format of [email protected]

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls


Question 7:

You need to create relationships to meet the reporting requirements of the customer service department. What should you create?

A. an additional date table named ShipDate, a one-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_date_id] to Date[date_id], and a one-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_ship_date_id] to ShipDate[date_id]

B. an additional date table named ShipDate, a many-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_date_id] to Date[date_id], and a many-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_ship_date_id] to ShipDate[date_id]

C. a one-to-many relationship from Date[date_id] to Sales[sales_date_id] and another one-to-many relationship from Date[date_id] to Weekly_Returns[week_id]

D. a one-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_date_id] to Date[date_id] and a one-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_ship_date_id] to Date[date_id]

E. a one-to-many relationship from Date[date_id] to Sales[sales_date_id] and another one-to-many relationship from Date[date_id] to Sales[sales_ship_date_id]

Correct Answer: E

Scenario: The customer service department requires a visual that can be filtered by both sales month and ship month independently.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-relationships-understand


Question 8:

You need to recommend a strategy to consistently define the business unit, department, and product category data and make the data usable across reports. What should you recommend?

A. Create a shared dataset for each standardized entity.

B. Create dataflows for the standardized data and make the dataflows available for use in all imported datasets.

C. For every report, create and use a single shared dataset that contains the standardized data.

D. For the three entities, create exports of the data from the Power Bl model to Excel and store the data in Microsoft OneDrive for others to use as a source.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is the minimum number of datasets and storage modes required to support the reports?

A. two imported datasets

B. a single DirectQuery dataset

C. two DirectQuery datasets

D. a single imported dataset

Correct Answer: A

Scenario: Data and Sources

Data for the reports comes from three sources. Detailed revenue, cost, and expense data comes from an Azure SQL database. Summary balance sheet data comes from Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central. The balance sheet data is

not related to the profit and loss results, other than they both relate dates.

Monthly revenue and expense projections for the next quarter come from a Microsoft SharePoint Online list. Quarterly projections relate to the profit and loss results by using the following shared dimensions: date, business unit, department,

and product category.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/service-datasets-understand


Question 10:

Which two types of visualizations can be used in the balance sheet reports to meet the reporting goals? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a line chart that shows balances by quarter filtered to account categories that are long-term liabilities.

B. a clustered column chart that shows balances by date (x-axis) and account category (legend) without filters.

C. a clustered column chart that shows balances by quarter filtered to account categories that are long-term liabilities.

D. a pie chart that shows balances by account category without filters.

E. a ribbon chart that shows balances by quarter and accounts in the legend.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a clustered bar chart that contains a measure named Salary as the value and a field named Employee as the axis. Salary is present in the data as numerical amount representing US dollars.

You need to create a reference line to show which employees are above the median salary.

Solution: You create an average line by using the Salary measure.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead create a percentile line by using the Salary measure and set the percentile to 50%.

Note: The 50th percentile is also known as the median or middle value where 50 percent of observations fall below.

Reference: https://dash-intel.com/powerbi/statistical_functions_percentile.php


Question 12:

You have a Microsoft Power BI data model that contains three tables named Orders, Date, and City. There is a one-to-many relationship between Date and Orders and between City and Orders.

The model contains two row-level security (RLS) roles named Role1 and Role2. Role1 contains the following filter.

City[State Province] = “Kentucky”

Role2 contains the following filter.

Date[Calendar Year] = 2020

If a user is a member of both Role1 and Role2, what data will they see in a report that uses the model?

A. The user will see data for which the State Province value is Kentucky and the Calendar Year is 2020.

B. The user will see data for which the State Province value is Kentucky or the Calendar Year is 2020.

C. The user will see only data for which the State Province value is Kentucky.

D. The user will receive an error and will not be able to see the data in the report.

Correct Answer: B

When a report user is assigned to multiple roles, RLS filters become additive. It means report users can see table rows that represent the union of those filters.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/guidance/rls-guidance


Question 13:

You are configuring a Microsoft Power Bl data model to enable users to ask natural language questions by using QandA. You have a table named Customer that has the following measure.

Customer Count = DISTINCTCOUNT(Customer[CustomerID])

Users frequently refer to customers as subscribers.

You need to ensure that the users can get a useful result for “subscriber count” by using QandA. The solution must minimize the size of the model.

What should you do?

A. Add a description of “subscriber count” to the Customer Count measure.

B. Set Summarize By to None for the CustomerlD column.

C. Add a description of “Subscriber” to the Customer table.

D. Add a synonym of “subscriber” to the Customer table.

Correct Answer: D

You can add synonyms to tables and columns.

Note: This step applies specifically to QandA (and not to Power BI reports in general). Users often have a variety of terms they use to refer to the same thing, such as total sales, net sales, total net sales. You can add these synonyms to tables and columns in the Power BI model.

This step applies specifically to QandA (and not to Power BI reports in general). Users often have a variety of terms they use to refer to the same thing, such as total sales, net sales, total net sales. You can add these synonyms to tables and columns in the Power BI model.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/natural-language/q-and-a-best-practices


Question 14:

Your company plans to completely separate development and production assets such as datasets, reports, and dashboards in Microsoft Power BI.

You need to recommend an application lifecycle strategy. The solution must minimize access to production assets and prevent end users from viewing the development assets.

What should you recommend?

A. Create production reports in a separate workspace that uses a shared dataset from the development workspace. Grant the end users access to the production workspace.

B. Create one workspace for development. From the new workspace, publish an app for production.

C. Create a workspace for development and a workspace for production. From the production workspace,publish an app.

D. In one workspace, create separate copies of the assets and append DEV to the names of the copied assets. …

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Question 1:

To comply with the SAP Fiori principles, which view type is recommended by SAP?

A. JSON

B. XML

C. HTML

D. JavaScript

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

In an SAPU15 application, where do you find the reference to sap-ui-core.js?

A. In the URL to the SAPU15 application

B. In the bound attributes data model

C. In the manifest.json descriptor file

D. In the bootstrap section of the index.html

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which of the following are characteristics of SAPU15? Note; There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Provides device-specific user experience

B. Supports customer-specific theming

C. Provides an extensibility concept

D. Enables responsive application design

E. Renders the UI on server side

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 4:

What happens if you define a database object in the persistence model and deploy it using the SAP HANA Deployment Infrastructure (HDI)?

A. The corresponding runtime object is created in the database module of the multi-target application during runtime.

B. The corresponding runtime object is created in the HDI container on deployment.

C. A descriptive representation of the object is created in HDI during runtime.

D. The HDI container is created when the design-time object is saved.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which GIT command do you use to consolidate all changes from one branch with another branch using a single commit?

A. Commit

B. Push

C. Rebase

D. Merge

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

You need to view the data model exposed by an OData V2 service. What must you append to the service URL?

A. $servicedefinition

B. $schema

C. $metadata

D. $format

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which of the following SQLScript elements do you use to transform a set of arrays into an intermediate table variable?

A. SET

B. UNSET

C. ARRAY

D. UNNEST

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

In an SQLScript procedure, which feature do you use to initialize IN/OUT table parameters?

A. IS_EMPTY

B. DEFAULT EMPTY

C. DEFAULT

D. SET

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

You must debug an existing SQLScript procedure in SAP HANA extended application services, advanced model (XS advanced). What is the valid sequence to debug the procedure?

A. 1 Select the SQLScript procedure in the project explorer, p. 2 Open the SQLScript console. 3 Set the breakpoint in the code of your SQL procedure. 4 Generate the call to the SQL procedure and execute it.

B. 1 Select the SQLScript procedure in the database explorer, p. 2 Set the debugger privilege. 3 Set the external breakpoint in the code of your SQL procedure. 4 Run the ABAP program where the SQL procedure is called in debugging mode.

C. 1 Select the ABAP program where the SQLScript procedure is called in the project explorer. p. 2 Set the external debugger privilege. 3 Set the external breakpoint in the code of your ABAP program.

4 Run the ABAP program in debugging mode.

D. 1 Select the SQLScript procedure in the database explorer. / pv 2 Specify the SQLScript debugger settings in the SQL Debugger. 3 Set the breakpoint in the code of your stored procedure. 4 Generate the call to the SQL procedure and execute it.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which URL query options are available with XSOData v2.0? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. $top

B. $filter

C. $select

D. $view

E. $read

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 11:

In your UI5 application, you need to refer to an SAPUI5 core library that is available on your SAP HANA extended application services, advanced model (XS advanced) server.

Which files must you adapt?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. EH metadata.xml

B. mta.yaml

C. index.html

D. xs-app.json

E. manifest, json

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 12:

Which module do you use to run an SQL statement against the SAP HANA database?

A. @sap/xsenv

B. @sap/hdbext

C. @sap/xssec

D. @sap/hdi

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which tool do you use to create a calculation view in a multi-target application?

A. SAP HANA database explorer

B. SAP HANA studio

C. SAP HANA Web-based Delopment Workbench

D. SAP web IDE for SAP HANA

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

You develop native SAP HANA applications in SAP HANA extended application services, advanced model (XS advanced).

What are some of the advantages compared to developing in SAP HANA extended application services, classic model (XS classic)?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. No additional SAP HANA components are required.

B. It supports different runtime containers.

C. The source code repository is built into the SAP HANA database.

D. Advanced GIT/GERRIT source code management is available.

E. The application layer can be separate from the database.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 15:

How do you debug a Node.js module in SAP Web IDE for SAP HANA?

A. Start the debugger from the XS Command Line interface and run the program in SAP Web IDE for SAP U HANA

B. Set the enabled parameter to true in the section debugger of the xsengine.ini file

C. Attach the debugger to the application in the SAP Web IDE for SAP HANA

D. Add the sap.hana.xs.debugger: :Debugger plugin to the SAP Web IDE for SAP HANA

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Many companies have very large groups of physical servers in a central location. Which of the following describes those large groups of servers?

A. IBM mainframes

B. Remote distributed processing

C. zBX

D. Server farms

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which of the following can identify a base software component?

A. Message format

B. Software update list

C. System log routing table descriptor

D. Three characters in message identifier

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

A system z architecture has two kinds of physical storage. There is central storage and auxiliary storage. Access to central storage is _________.

A. multi-synchronous

B. asychronous

C. synchronous

D. duplexed

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which of the following is a characteristic of Native TSO?

A. It provides a full screen editor for updating datasets

B. It provides a ready prompt to enter commands

C. It provides a dataset list for editing data sets

D. It provides a menu to enter commands

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Including all name segments and periods, the length of a dataset name cannot exceed how many characters?

A. 48

B. 44

C. 40

D. 36

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Whenever a new customer record is added, it is always added at the end of the data set.

Whenever the customer data set records are processed, they are always processed starting at the beginning of the data set, each record is read and processed, and processing stops when the last record in the data set has been processed.

What is the data set type?

A. Sequential

B. PDS/E

C. RRDS

D. PDS

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

When creating new data sets, one must specify the NEW option for the DISP parameter of a DD statement. Which of the following is required in addition to the NEW option when allocating disk space?

A. The type of high speed memory in the system

B. The space allocated for the dynamic extents

C. A hierarchical file system name

D. A volume serial number

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which of the following enables processing of a batch job in a z/OS environment?

A. UNIX Services

B. ISPF

C. TSO

D. JCL

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which of the following is the most commonly used interface for z/OS application programmers?

A. Rational Developer for System z (RDz)

B. TSO/E and ISPF

C. X Window

D. TN 3270

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

What types of modules are input to the binder or linkage editor?

A. Compiled Modules

B. Source Modules

C. Output Modules

D. Object Modules

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

What is a CICS transaction?

A. The amount of data transferred by executing a single CICS command

B. A request issued by a synch point manager

C. A unit of work initiated by a single request

D. A request issued by a resource manager

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

After signing on to CICS, how does a user invoke a transaction?

A. By issuing a TSO command

B. By typing INVOKE CICS

C. By typing EXEC CICS

D. By typing a TRANSID

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

SSI, Cookie Support, Tracing and Logging, and Persistent Connections are considered what type of z/OS-specific HTTP functions?

A. File Caching

B. Security

C. Add-on

D. Basic

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which of the following disk volumes contains the IPL text?

A. SYSCAT

B. SYSRES

C. SYSDLB

D. SYSZOS

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following elements allow different z/OS systems to share PARMLIB definitions while retaining unique values in those definitions?

A. System Parameters

B. System Messages

C. System Symbols

D. System Codes

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?

A. Project gap

B. Product gap

C. Competitive gap

D. Usage gap

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which of the following is a method for transforming a message into a masked form, together with a way of undoing the transformation to recover the message?

A. Cipher

B. CrypTool

C. Steganography

D. MIME

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a particular message?

A. Integrity

B. Confidentiality

C. Authentication

D. Non-repudiation

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following are the examples of technical controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. Auditing

B. Network acchitecture

C. System access

D. Data backups

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 5:

Which of the following types of attacks cannot be prevented by technical measures only?

A. Social engineering

B. Brute force

C. Smurf DoS

D. Ping flood attack

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which of the following attacks can be overcome by applying cryptography?

A. Web ripping

B. DoS

C. Sniffing

D. Buffer overflow

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. John notices that the We-are-secure network is vulnerable to a man-in-the- middle attack since the key exchange process of the cryptographic algorithm it is using does not thenticate participants. Which of the following cryptographic algorithms is being used by the We-are- secure server?

A. Blowfish

B. Twofish

C. RSA

D. Diffie-Hellman

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which of the following protocols is used to compare two values calculated using the Message Digest (MD5) hashing function?

A. CHAP

B. PEAP

C. EAP

D. EAP-TLS

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which of the following statements about Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. It uses symmetric key pairs.

B. It provides security using data encryption and digital signature.

C. It uses asymmetric key pairs.

D. It is a digital representation of information that identifies users.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

You are the Network Administrator for a small business. You need a widely used, but highly secure hashing algorithm. Which of the following should you choose?

A. AES

B. SHA

C. EAP

D. CRC32

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following refers to a location away from the computer center where document copies and backup media are kept?

A. Storage Area network

B. Off-site storage

C. On-site storage

D. Network attached storage

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

John used to work as a Network Administrator for We-are-secure Inc. Now he has resigned from the company for personal reasons. He wants to send out some secret information of the company. To do so, he takes an image file and simply uses a tool image hide and embeds the secret file within an image file of the famous actress, Jennifer Lopez, and sends it to his Yahoo mail id. Since he is using the image file to send the data, the mail server of his company is unable to filter this mail. Which of the following techniques is he performing to accomplish his task?

A. Email spoofing

B. Social engineering

C. Web ripping

D. Steganography

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which of the following protocols uses the Internet key Exchange (IKE) protocol to set up security associations (SA)?

A. IPSec

B. L2TP

C. LEAP

D. ISAKMP

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Computer networks and the Internet are the prime mode of Information transfer today. Which of the following is a technique used for modifying messages, providing Information and Cyber security, and reducing the risk of hacking attacks during communications and message passing over the Internet?

A. Risk analysis

B. Firewall security

C. Cryptography

D. OODA loop

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which of the following should the administrator ensure during the test of a disaster recovery plan?

A. Ensure that the plan works properly

B. Ensure that all the servers in the organization are shut down.

C. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility.

D. Ensure that all client computers in the organization are shut down.

Correct Answer: AC


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Question 1:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.

The domain contains a member server named Servers that runs Windows Server 2016.

You need to configure Servers as a Just Enough Administration (JEA) endpoint.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Create and export a Windows PowerShell session.

B. Deploy Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM) 2016

C. Create a maintenance Role Capability file

D. Generate a random Globally Unique Identifier (GUID)

E. Create and register a session configuration file.

Correct Answer: CE

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/jea/role-capabilities https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/jea/register-jea


Question 2:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several Hyper-V hosts.

You deploy a server named Server22 to a workgroup. Server22 runs Windows Server 2016.

You need to configure Server22 as the primary Host Guardian Service server.

Which three cmdlets should you run in sequence?

A. Install-HgsServer

B. Install-Module

C. Install-Package

D. Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature

E. Install-ADDSDomainController

F. Initialize-HgsServer

Correct Answer: AEF

Correct order of actions:

1.

Install-ADDSDomainController , as Server22 is a workgroup computer, create a new domain on it first.

2.

Install-HgsServer3. Initialize-HgsServer https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/guarded-fabricsetting-up-the-host-guardian-service-hgs https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/ guarded-fabricinstall-hgs-default Install-HgsServer https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/guarded-fabricinitialize-hgs-tpm-mode-default Initialize-HgsServer


Question 3:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers.

You deploy the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) to the network

You need to view the password of the local administrator of a server named Server5.

Which tool should you use?

A. Active Directory Users and Computers

B. Computer Management

C. Accounts from the Settings app

D. Server Manager

Correct Answer: A

Use “Active Directory Users and Computers” to view the attribute value of “ms-MCS-adminpwd” of the Server5computer account https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askpfeplat/2015/12/28/local-administrator-password-solution-lapsimplementation-hints-and-security-nerd-commentaryincludingmini-threat-model/


Question 4:

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

You configure Just Enough Administration (JEA) on Server1.

You need to view a list of commands that will be available to a user named User1 when User1 establishes a JEA session to Server1.

Which cmdlet should you use?

A. Trace-Command

B. Get-PSSessionCapability

C. Get-PSSessionConfiguration

D. Show-Command

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/Microsoft.PowerShell.Core/get-pssessioncapability? view=powershell-5.0.The Get-PSSessionCapability cmdlet gets the capabilities of a specific user on a constrained sessionconfiguration.Use this cmdlet to audit customized session configurations for users.Starting in Windows PowerShell 5.0, you can use the RoleDefinitions property in a session configuration (.pssc)file. Using this property lets you grant users different capabilities on a single constrained endpoint based on groupmembership.The Get-PSSessionCapability cmdlet reduces complexity when auditing these endpoints by letting youdetermine the exact capabilities granted to a user.This command is used by I.T. Administrator (The “You” mention in the question) to verify configuration for aUser.


Question 5:

You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

A new policy states that ZIP files must not be stored on Server1. An administrator creates a file screen filter as shown in the following output

Active : False

Description:

IncludeGroup: {Compressed Files}

MatchesTemplate: False

Notification {MSFT FSRMAction, MSFT FSRMAction}

Path : C:\\

Template :

PSComputerName:

You need to prevent users from storing ZIP files on Server1, what should you do?

A. Enable Quota Management on all the drives.

B. Add a template to the filter.

C. Change the filter to active.

D. Configure File System (Global Object Access Auditing).

Correct Answer: C

“Active : False”, then it is a Passive Filescreen filther which will not block unwanted file types.


Question 6:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.

The domain contains two DNS servers that run Windows Server 2016.

The servers host two zones named contoso.com and admin.contoso.com.

You sign both zones.

You need to ensure that all client computers in the domain validate the zone records when they query the zone.

What should you deploy?

A. a Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM) policy

B. a zone transfer policy

C. a Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT)

D. a connection security rule

Correct Answer: C

You should use Group Policy NRPT to for a DNS Client to perform DNSSEC validation of DNS zone records.


Question 7:

Your network contains several secured subnets that are disconnected from the Internet.

One of the secured subnets contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

You implement Log Analytics in Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) for the servers that connect to the Internet.

You need to ensure that Log Analytics can collect logs from Server1.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Install the OMS Log Analytics Forwarder on a server that has Internet connectivity.

B. Create an event subscription on a server that has Internet connectivity.

C. Create a scheduled task on Server1.

D. Install the OMS Log Analytics Forwarder on Server1.

E. Install Microsoft Monitoring Agent on Server1.

Correct Answer: AE

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/log-analytics/log-analytics-oms-gatewayOMS Log Analytics Forwarder = OMS GatewayIf your IT security policies do not allow computers on your network to connect to the Internet, such as point ofsale (POS) devices, or servers supporting IT services,but you need to connect them to OMS to manage and monitor them, they can be configured to communicatedirectly with the OMS Gateway (previous called “OMSLog Analytics Fowarder”) to receive configuration and forward data on their behalf.You have to also install Microsoft Monitoring Agent on Server1 to generate and send events to the OMS Gateway,since Server1 does not have direct Internet connectivity.


Question 8:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 installed. The domain contains domain controllers that run

Windows Server 2016.

A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is applied to all of the domain controllers.

GPO1 has a Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) of 7ABCDEFG-1234-5678-90AB-005056123456.

You need to create a new baseline that contains the settings from GPO1. What should you do first?

A. Copy the \\\\contoso.com\\sysvol\\contoso.com\\Policies\\{7ABCDEFG-1234-5678-90AB-005056123456} folder to Server1.

B. From Group Policy Management, create a backup of GPO1.

C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Copy-GPO cmdlet

D. Modify the permissions of the \\\\contoso.com\\sysvol\\contoso.com\\Policies\\{7ABCDEFG-1234-5678-90AB-005056123456}

Correct Answer: B

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh489604.aspxImport Your GPOsYou can import current settings from your GPOs and compare these to the Microsoft recommended bestpractices.Start with a GPO backup that you would commonly create in the Group Policy Management Console(GPMC).Take note of the folder to which the backup is saved. In SCM, select GPO Backup, browse to the GPOfolder\’s Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) and select aname for the GPO when it\’s imported.SCM will preserve any ADM files and GP Preference files (those with non-security settings that SCM doesn\’tparse) you\’re storing with your GPO backups.It saves them in a subfolder within the user\’s public folder. When you export the baseline as a GPO again, italso restores all the associated files.


Question 9:

Your company has an accounting department.

The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 10 servers.

You deploy a new server named Server11 that runs Windows Server 2016.

Server11 will host several network applications and network shares used by the accounting department.

You need to recommend a solution for Server11 that meets the following requirements:

-Protects Server11 from address spoofing and session hijacking

-Allows only the computers in We accounting department to connect to Server11

What should you recommend implementing?

A. AppLocker rules

B. Just Enough Administration (JEA)

C. connection security rules

D. Privileged Access Management (PAM)

Correct Answer: C

In IPsec connection security rule, the IPsec protocol verifies the sending host IP address by utilize integrity functions like Digitally signing all packets.If unsigned packets arrives Server11, those are possible source address spoofed packets, when usingconnection security rule in-conjunction with inbound firewallrules, you can kill those un-signed packets with the action “Allow connection if it is secure” to prevent spoofingand session hijacking attacks.


Question 10:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.

The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.

Computer1 connects to a home network and a corporate network.

The corporate network uses the 172.16.0.0/24 address space internally.

Computer1 runs an application named App1 that listens to port 8080.

You need to prevent connections to App1 when Computer1 is connected to the home network.

Solution: From Windows Firewall with Advanced Security, you create an inbound rule.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.

All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain members.

All laptops are protected by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).

You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of application servers.

An OU named OU2 contains the computer accounts of the computers in the marketing department.

A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1.

A GPO named GP2 is linked to OU2.

All computers receive updates from Server1.

You create an update rule named Update1.

You need to prepare the environment to support applying Update1 to the laptops only.

What should you do? Choose Two.

A. Tool to use: Active Directory Administrative Center

B. Tool to use: Active Directory Users and Computers

C. Tool to use: Microsoft Intune

D. Tool to use: Update Services

E. Type of object to create: A computer group

F. Type of object to create: A distribution group

G. Type of object to create: A mobile device group

H. Type of object to create: A security group

I. Type of object to create: An OU

Correct Answer: DE

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc708458(v=ws.10).aspx


Question 12:

Note: The question is part of a series of questions th?present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. The forest contains 2,000 client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed from a customized Windows

image.

You need to deploy 10 Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users.

Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure them as PAWs. You deploy 10 additional computers and configure them by using the customized Windows image. Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/security/securing-privileged-access/privileged-access-workstations


Question 13:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.

The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

You need to prevent NTLM authentication on Server1.

Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run the Disable-WindowsOptionalFeature cmdlet.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No …

Read More →

DOP-C01 Amazon Real Questions, Free PDF Tests Online and Free Study Guides

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Question 1:

To run an application, a DevOps Engineer launches an Amazon EC2 instances with public IP addresses in a public subnet. A user data script obtains the application artifacts and installs them on the instances upon launch. A change to the security classification of the application now requires the instances to run with no access to the Internet. While the instances launch successfully and show as healthy, the application does not seem to be installed. Which of the following should successfully install the application while complying with the new rule?

A. Launch the instances in a public subnet with Elastic IP addresses attached. Once the application is installed and running, run a script to disassociate the Elastic IP addresses afterwards.

B. Set up a NAT gateway. Deploy the EC2 instances to a private subnet. Update the private subnet\’s route table to use the NAT gateway as the default route.

C. Publish the application artifacts to an Amazon S3 bucket and create a VPC endpoint for S3. Assign an IAM instance profile to the EC2 instances so they can read the application artifacts from the S3 bucket.

D. Create a security group for the application instances and whitelist only outbound traffic to the artifact repository. Remove the security group rule once the install is complete.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

An IT department manages a portfolio with Windows and Linux (Amazon and Red Hat Enterprise Linux)

servers both on-premises and on AWS. An audit reveals that there is no process for updating OS and core

application patches, and that the servers have inconsistent patch levels.

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable and consistent mechanism for updating and maintaining

all servers at the recent OS and core application patch levels?

A. Install AWS Systems Manager agent on all on-premises and AWS servers. Create Systems Manager Resource Groups. Use Systems Manager Patch Manager with a preconfigured patch baseline to run scheduled patch updates during maintenance windows.

B. Install the AWS OpsWorks agent on all on-premises and AWS servers. Create an OpsWorks stack with separate layers for each operating system, and get a recipe from the Chef supermarket to run the patch commands for each layer during maintenance windows.

C. Use a shell script to install the latest OS patches on the Linux servers using yum and schedule it to run automatically using cron. Use Windows Update to automatically patch Windows servers.

D. Use AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store to securely store credentials for each Linux and Windows server. Create Systems Manager Resource Groups. Use the Systems Manager Run Command to remotely deploy patch updates using the credentials in Systems Manager Parameter Store

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

A company is setting up a centralized logging solution on AWS and has several requirements. The company wants its Amazon CloudWatch Logs and VPC Flow logs to come from different sub accounts and to be delivered to a single auditing account. However, the number of sub accounts keeps changing. The company also needs to index the logs in the auditing account to gather actionable insight. How should a DevOps Engineer implement the solution to meet all of the company\’s requirements?

A. Use AWS Lambda to write logs to Amazon ES in the auditing account. Create an Amazon CloudWatch subscription filter and use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams in the sub accounts to stream the logs to the Lambda function deployed in the auditing account.

B. Use Amazon Kinesis Streams to write logs to Amazon ES in the auditing account. Create a CloudWatch subscription filter and use Kinesis Data Streams in the sub accounts to stream the logs to the Kinesis stream in the auditing account.

C. Use Amazon Kinesis Firehose with Kinesis Data Streams to write logs to Amazon ES in the auditing account. Create a CloudWatch subscription filter and stream logs from sub accounts to the Kinesis stream in the auditing account.

D. Use AWS Lambda to write logs to Amazon ES in the auditing account. Create a CloudWatch subscription filter and use Lambda in the sub accounts to stream the logs to the Lambda function deployed in the auditing account.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company wants to use a grid system for a proprietary enterprise in-memory data store on top of AWS.

This system can run in multiple server nodes in any Linux-based distribution. The system must be able to

reconfigure the entire cluster every time a node is added or removed. When adding or removing nodes,

an /etc./cluster/nodes.config file must be updated, listing the IP addresses of the current node members of

that cluster

The company wants to automate the task of adding new nodes to a cluster.

What can a DevOps Engineer do to meet these requirements?

A. Use AWS OpsWorks Stacks to layer the server nodes of that cluster. Create a Chef recipe that populates the content of the /etc/cluster/nodes.config file and restarts the service by using the current members of the layer. Assign that recipe to the Configure lifecycle event.

B. Put the file nodes.config in version control. Create an AWS CodeDeploy deployment configuration and deployment group based on an Amazon EC2 tag value for the cluster nodes. When adding a new node to the cluster, update the file with all tagged instances, and make a commit in version control. Deploy the new file and restart the services.

C. Create an Amazon S3 bucket and upload a version of the etc/cluster/nodes.config file. Create a crontab script that will poll for that S3 file and download it frequently. Use a process manager, such as Monit or systemd, to restart the cluster services when it detects that the new file was modified. When adding a node to the cluster, edit the file\’s most recent members. Upload the new file to the S3 bucket.

D. Create a user data script that lists all members of the current security group of the cluster and automatically updates the /etc/cluster/nodes.config file whenever a new instance is added to the cluster

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A company has established tagging and configuration standards for its infrastructure resources running on AWS. A DevOps Engineer is developing a design that will provide a near-real-time dashboard of the compliance posture with the ability to highlight violations.

Which approach meets the stated requirements?

A. Define the resource configurations in AWS Service Catalog, and monitor the AWS Service Catalog compliance and violations in Amazon CloudWatch. Then, set up and share a live CloudWatch dashboard. Set up Amazon SNS notifications for violations and corrections.

B. Use AWS Config to record configuration changes and output the data to an Amazon S3 bucket. Create an Amazon QuickSight analysis of the dataset, and use the information on dashboards and mobile devices.

C. Create a resource group that displays resources with the specified tags and those without tags. Use the AWS Management Console to view compliant and non-compliant resources.

D. Define the compliance and tagging requirements in Amazon Inspector. Output the results to Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Build a metric filter to isolate the monitored elements of interest and present the data in a CloudWatch dashboard.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/answers/configuration-management/aws-infrastructure-configurationmanagement/


Question 6:

A DevOps Engineer is implementing a mechanism for canary testing an application on AWS. The

application was recently modified and went through security, unit, and functional testing. The application

needs to be deployed on an AutoScaling group and must use a Classic Load Balancer.

Which design meets the requirement for canary testing?

A. Create a different Classic Load Balancer and Auto Scaling group for blue/green environments. Use Amazon Route 53 and create weighted A records on Classic Load Balancer.

B. Create a single Classic Load Balancer and an Auto Scaling group for blue/green environments. Use Amazon Route 53 and create A records for Classic Load Balancer IPs. Adjust traffic using A records.

C. Create a single Classic Load Balancer and an Auto Scaling group for blue/green environments. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution with the Classic Load Balancer as the origin. Adjust traffic using CloudFront.

D. Create a different Classic Load Balancer and Auto Scaling group for blue/green environments. Create an Amazon API Gateway with a separate stage for the Classic Load Balancer. Adjust traffic by giving weights to this stage.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A company has several AWS accounts. The accounts are shared and used across multiple teams globally,

primarily for Amazon EC2 instances. Each EC2 instance has tags for team, environment, and cost center

to ensure accurate cost allocations.

How should a DevOps Engineer help the teams audit their costs and automate infrastructure cost

optimization across multiple shared environments and accounts?

A. Set up a scheduled script on the EC2 instances to report utilization and store the instances in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Create a dashboard in Amazon QuickSight with DynamoDB as the source data to find underutilized instances. Set up triggers from Amazon QuickSight in AWS Lambda to reduce underutilized instances.

B. Create a separate Amazon CloudWatch dashboard for EC2 instance tags based on cost center, environment, and team, and publish the instance tags out using unique links for each team. For each team, set up a CloudWatch Events rule with the CloudWatch dashboard as the source, and set up a trigger to initiate an AWS Lambda function to reduce underutilized instances.

C. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Events rule with AWS Trusted Advisor as the source for low utilization EC2 instances. Trigger an AWS Lambda function that filters out reported data based on tags for each team, environment, and cost center, and store the Lambda function in Amazon S3. Set up a second trigger to initiate a Lambda function to reduce underutilized instances.

D. Use AWS Systems Manager to track instance utilization and report underutilized instances to Amazon CloudWatch. Filter data in CloudWatch based on tags for team, environment, and cost center. Set up triggers from CloudWatch into AWS Lambda to reduce underutilized instances

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://github.com/aws/Trusted-Advisor-Tools/tree/master/LowUtilizationEC2Instances


Question 8:

A company has a hybrid architecture solution in which some legacy systems remain on-premises, while a specific cluster of servers is moved to AWS. The company cannot reconfigure the legacy systems, so the cluster nodes must have a fixed hostname and local IP address for each server that is part of the cluster. The DevOps Engineer must automate the configuration for a six-node cluster with high availability across three Availability Zones (AZs), placing two elastic network interfaces in a specific subnet for each AZ. Each node\’s hostname and local IP address should remain the same between reboots or instance failures. Which solution involves the LEAST amount of effort to automate this task?

A. Create an AWS Elastic Beanstalk application and a specific environment for each server of the cluster. For each environment, give the hostname, elastic network …

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